Part 1 👈👈
(a) Gluconeogenesis
(b) Hexose mono phosphate shunt
(c) Glycogenolysis
(d) Lipogenesis
102. Generation of ATP during citric acid cycle is
(a) 8 (b) 22
(c) 24 (d) 30
103. Glycolysis reaction is regulate by catalyze the irreversible reaction by all of the following enzyme except
(a) Hexokinase
(b) Phosphofructokinase
(c) Pyruvate kinase
(d) Phosphoglycerate kinase
104. The inhibition of glycolysis by oxygen is known as
(a) Crabtree effect
(b) Pasteur effect
(c) Rapaport–Leubering effect
(d) Krebs effect
105. In citric acid cycle citrate is convertinged in to isocitrate by
(a) Aconitase
(b) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
(c) Citrate synthase
(d) Succinate dehydrogenase
106. In tricarboxylic acid cycle citrate synthase enzyme is inhibited by
(a) ADP
(b) AMP
(c) NAD+
(d) Succinyl Co-A
107. The enzymes of tricarboxylic acid cycle are located in
(a) Cytosol
(b) Mitochondrial matrix
(c) Cytosomal fraction of the cell
(d) Liver
108. All of the following are precursors for gluconeogenesis
except
(a) Lactate
(b) Pyruvate
(c) Acetyl Co-A
(d) Glycerol
109. Gluconeogenesis is regulated by
(a) ACTH
(b) Glucagon
(c) Progesterone
(d) Insulin
110. Glycogen synthesis is increased in one of the following conditions:
(a) If insulin level is increased
(b) If glucagon level is increased
(c) If norepinephrine level is increased
(d) If glucose level is increased
111. Van Gierke’s disease occurs because of
(a) Glucose level is decreased
(b) Glucagon level is decreased
(c) Glycogen accumulates in hepatocytes and renal cells
(d) Lactic acid level is increased
112. In hexose mono phosphate shunt glucose 6-phosphate is converted in to 6 phosphogluconolactone by
(a) Glucose 6-Phosphate dehydrogenase
(b) Transketolase
(c) Gluconolactone hydrolase
(d) Phosphogluconate dehydrogenase
113. Uronic acid pathway is concerned with synthesis of
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin C (d) Glucose
114. The process of shifting of hydrogen atom from one carbon atom to another to produce enediols is known as
(a) Anomers
(b) Epimers
(c) Mutarotaiton
(d) Tautomerization
115. Krebs Cycle is known as amphibolic because
(a) Catabolic in nature
(b) Anabolic in nature
(c) Both anabolic and catabolic in nature
(d) Either anabolic or catabolic in nature
116. Lyase means
(a) Enzymes specialized in the addition or removal of water, ammonia, etc.
(b) Enzymes that brings about hydrolysis of various compound
(c) Enzymes that catalyse the transfer of functional groups
(d) Enzymes involved in all the isomerization reaction
117. Multienzyme complexes means
(a) It is made up of a single polypeptide
(b) Some of the enzymes which possess more than one polypeptide chain
(c) Possessing specific site to catalyse different reaction in a sequence
(d) Enzymes made up of apoenzyme and coenzyme
118. Hexokinase is classified as a
(a) Oxidoreductases enzyme
(b) Transferases enzyme
(c) Hydrolases enzyme
(d) Lyases enzyme
119. Most of the enzymes of the higher organism show optimum activity around
(a) pH 1–2
(b) pH 10–11
(c) pH 6–8
(d) pH 4–6
120. Thiamin pyrophosphate is derived from
(a) Thyroxine
(b) Thiamine
(c) Tryptophan
(d) Niacin
121. As per IUB enzyme activity is expressed in
(a) Micromol
(b) Katal
(c) Miligram
(d) Mcrogram
122. Serum glutamate pyruvate transminase is used for diagnose of
(a) Hepatitis
(b) Acute pancreatics
(c) Myocardial infarction
(d) Rickets
123. For cancer of prostate gland one of the following enzymes is used
(a) Amylase
(b) Alkaline phosphate
(c) Acid phosphate
(d) Aldolase
124. Indole ring is present in ____amino acid
(a) Tyrosine
(b) Proline
(c) Tryptophan
(d) Lysine
125. Gaucher’s disease occurs due to the deficiency of
(a) Ceramidase
(b) Hexosaminidase
(c) Sphingomyelinase
(d) β Glucosidase
126. One of the following hormones decreases the cholesterol synthesis
(a) Insulin
(b) Thyroxine
(c) Glucagon
(d) Growth hormone
127. The protein component of lipoprotein is known as
(a) Chylomicron
(b) Apoprotein
(c) Phophoprotein
(d) None of the above
128. According to the Frederickson’s classification of hyperliporoteinemias in Type IV
(a) Increased IDL level
(b) Increased LDL level
(c) Increased VLDL level
(d) Increased HDL level
129. In HDL ___________ of triacylglycerol is present.
(a) 88% (b) 55%
(c) 12% (d) 98%
130. The two products in the β-oxidation of odd chain fatty
acids are
(a) Acetyl CoA and malonyl CoA
(b) Propionyl CoA and acyl CoA
(c) Succinyl CoA and malonyl CoA
(d) Propionyl CoA and acetyl CoA
131. Hypocholesterolemia is observed in the disorder
(a) Diabetes mellitus
(b) Thyrotoxicosis
(c) Hyperthyrodism
(d) Nephrotic syndrome
132. One of the following amino acids contains hydroxyl group:
(a) Threonine
(b) Leucine
(c) Valine
(d) Glutamine
133. Acidic amino acid is
(a) Lysine
(b) Arginine
(c) Histidine
(d) Glutamic acid
134. DNA and RNA differ in their structure:
(a) DNA contains Cytosine and RNA contains Adenine
(b) RNA contains Adenine and RNA contains Cytosine
(c) DNA contains Thymine and RNA contains Uracil
(d) RNA contains Guanine and RNA contains Adenine
135. In DNA structure width of double helix is
(a) 5 nm (b) 8 nm
(c) 1 nm (d) 2 nm
136. Structure of polydeoxyribo- nucleotide segment is held by
(a) Peptide bonds
(b) Phospho bonds
(c) Phosphodiester bonds
(d) Amide bond
137. In DNA structure aAdenine makes the hydrogen bond only with
(a) Thiamine
(b) Guanine
(c) Cytosine
(d) Uracil
138. In Z-DNA confirmation of DNA helix the number of base pairs present in each turn is
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13
139. The sugar present in RNA is
(a) Ribose (b) Deoxyribose
(c) Fructose (d) Pentose
140. In RNAs cellular composition of ribosomal RNA is
(a) 5–10% (b) 10–20%
(c) 50–80% (d) 20–50%
141. rRNA function is to
(a) Transfer genetic information from genes to ribosomes
(b) Provide structural framework for ribosomes
(c) Trnasfer aminoacid to mRNA
(d) Involve in the selection of protein for export
142. Which of the following enzymes is NADPH dependent?
(a) Malic enzyme
(b) HMG CoA reductase
(c) Lactate dehyrogenase
(d) Tyramine dehyrogenase
143. By the non-oxidative deamination process enzyme
histidase act on histidine to convert in
(a) Threonine (b) Pyruvate
(c) Urocanate (d) Homoserine
144. Oxidative amination mostly takes place in
(a) Liver and kidney
(b) Liver and intestine
(c) Kidney and urinary tract
(d) Brain
145. In transamination process all transaminase require____ co-enzyme.
(a) Lipoic acid
(b) TPP
(c) FMN
(d) PLP
146. Urea cycle is known as
(a) Embden–Meyerhof pathway
(b) Krebs–Henseleit cycle
(c) Krebs cycle
(d) Kurt Henseleit cycle
147. Tocopherols prevents the oxidation of
(a) Vitamin D
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin B12
148. For the synthesis of creatine all of the following amino acids are required except
(a) Glycine
(b) Arginine
(c) Cysteine
(d) Methionine
149. Hypervitaminosis of vitamin A causes
(a) Xeropthalmia
(b) Pernicious anemia
(c) Keratomalacia
(d) Dermatitis, loss of hair
150. Storehouse of ammonia in biological system is
(a) Glutamine
(b) Glutamate
(c) Creatine
(d) Urea
151. Lesch–Nyhan syndrome occurs due to deficiency of which enzyme?
(a) PRPP synthetase
(b) Xanthine oxidase
(c) HGPRT
(d) Glucose-6-phosphatase
152. Orotic aciduria can be treated by a diet rich in
(a) Adenine (b) Guanine
(c) Uridine (d) All of the above
153. Menke’s disease is due deficiency of which of the following?
(a) Iron
(b) Copper
(c) Molybdenum
(d) Sodium
154. Which is the storage form of iron?
(a) Ferritin
(b) Hemosiderin
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
155. Krebs–Henseleit cycle occurs in
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Cytosol
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Kidney
156. Citrullinemia is due to defect in which of the following enzyme?
(a) Carbamoyl phosphatase synthase
(b) Arginase
(c) Ornithin transcarbomylase
(d) Arginosuccinate synthase
157. Which amino acid is the precursor of melanine?
(a) Alanine (b) Tyrosine
(c) Aspartic acid (d) Lysin
158. Hyperlipoproteinemia type III is due to elevated plasma
level of which of the lipoproteins?
(a) LDL (b) VLDL
(c) IDL (d) Chylomicrone
159. Jamaican vomiting sickness disease is due to
(a) Hypoglycin C
(b) Haemoglobin
(c) Hypoglycin A
(d) Both (a) and (b)
160. Krabbe’s disease occurs due to defect in
(a) β-glucosidase
(b) β-galactocidase
(c) Sphingomylein metabolism
(d) Hexosaminidases A
161. HMP shunt occurs in
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Cytosol
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
162. The reaction catalysed by hexokinase in glycolysis isbdependent on
(a) ATP
(b) Mg+
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) ADP
163. In Krebs cycle oxalosuccinate is converted to-ketoglutarate by which enzyme?
(a) -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
(b) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
(c) Succinate dehydrogenase
(d) Aconitase
164. Fluroacetate is the inhibitor of which enzyme in Krebs cycle?
(a) -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
(b) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
(c) Succinate dehydrogenase
(d) Aconitase
165. Cori’s disease is due to defect in which of the following enzyme?
(a) Glucose-6-phosphatase
(b) Amylo- -1,6-glucosidase
(c) Phospho fructokinase
(d) Liver glycogen phosphorylase
166. What is the starting material of retinol?
(a) Butyraldehyde and formic acid
(b) Beta-ionone and methylvinyllactone
(c) Ribulose
(d) Beta -ionone and methyl lactone
167. What is the starting material of pantothenic acid?
(a) Ribose
(b) Beta ionone and methyl lactone
(c) Benzaldehyde and l-o-Butraldehyde
(d) Formaldehyde and isobutyraldehyde
168. According to the chemical and biological classifications of fatty acids, we can classify palmitic acid as:
(a) Monounsaturated and essential
(b) Polyunsaturated and essential
(c) Saturated and essential
(d) Saturated and non- essential
169. A premature baby, shortly after birth, presents with rapid breathing, intercostal retractions, and grunting
sound while breathing. A blood gas analysis reveals low oxygen and acidosis. A diagnosis of respiratory distress syndrome is quickly made. This syndrome is seen in newborns with immature lungs whose pneumocytes do not synthesize enough:
(a) Phosphatidyl choline
(b) Phosphatidyl inositol
(c) Sphingosin
(d) Sphingomyelin
170. The following compounds are phospholipids:
(a) Lecithin and sphingomyelin
(b) Plasmalogens and cerebrosides
(c) Diacylglycerols and cephalins
(d) Glycerol and gangliosides
171. Name the enzymes involved in conversion of oxaloacetate to -ketoglutarate
(a) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
(b) Fumarase
(c) Aconitase
(d) Thiolase
172. Which kind of enzymes catalyses the activation or inactivation of other proteins and enzymes by phosphorylation of specific amino acid residues in the
protein that acts as substrate:
(a) Cyclases (b) Kinases
(c) Proteases (d) Phosphatase
173. This carbohydrate acts as lubricant of synovial fluid and
contributes to tensile strength and elasticity of cartilages and tendons. It is also an important component of skin.
(a) Cellulose (b) Glycogen
(c) Starch (d) Hyaluronic acid
174. It is the most important polysaccharide in human diet:
(a) Heparine (b) Starch
(c) Glycogen (d) Cellulose
175. In which form glucose is stored in muscle and liver?
(a) Cellulose (b) Glycogen
(c) Starch (d) Condroitin sulfate
176. The compound 5,7,8 trimethyltocol is commonly known as ..
(a) α-tocopherol (b) ß-tocopherol
(c) γ-tocopherol (d) Menaquinone
177. L-amino acid dehydrogenase is an enzyme that can catalyse the oxidation of different L-amino acids. It cannot catalyse the oxidation of D-amino acids or other L-compounds. Based on these characteristics we
can say that this enzyme shows:
(a) Absolute specificity over substrate
(b) Allosteric regulation
(c) Relative specificity over substrate
(d) Specificity of action
178. Inactive precursors of some enzymes that are activated through hydrolysis reactions are called:
(a) Apoenzyme
(b) Holoenzymes
(c) Prosthetic groups
(d) Zymogens
179. These enzymes have different structure but the same catalytic function. Frequently they are oligomers made from different polypeptide chains. These enzymes are called:
(a) Allosteric enzymes
(b) Isozymes
(c) Lyases
(d) Proenzymes
180. The necessary coenzyme for transamination reactions is
(a) Aminotransferases
(b) FAD
(c) Transcatalase
(d) FMN
181. In glucose metabolism, name the enzymes catalysing the following step: Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate?
(a) Hexokinase
(b) Glucokinase
(c) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
(d) Phosphofructokinase
182. The amino acid lysine is symbolized as
(a) K
(b) R
(c) L
(d) H
183. Which of the following residue in DNA exists predominantly as the keto tautomer?
(a) Cytosine
(b) Guanine
(c) Alanine
(d) Thymidine
184. D-galactose upon reduction gives
(a) D-sorbitol
(b) D-Ribitol
(c) D-Dulcitol
(d) D-Mnnitol
185. Glycoprotein laminin functions as
(a) Transporter
(b) Blood clotting
(c) Antigens
(d) Cell recognition and adhesion
186. What is the common name of cis-9-octadecanoic acid?
(a) Oleic acid (b) Linoleic acid
(c) Lauric acid (d) Palmitoleic acid
187. For vitamin D1
(a) 1 IU is contained in 7 6mg of standard preparation
(b) 1 lU is present in 0.344 µg of standard preparation
(c) 1 IU is contained in 0.025 µg of standard preparation
(d) 1 lU is present in 7 µg of standard preparation
188. Tyrosine gives the entire test positive except _______
(a) Xanthoprotic reaction
(b) Folin-Coicalteau’s test
(c) Millons reaction
(d) Hopkins-Cole reaction
189. Which of the following test is specific for the ketone bodies?
(a) Rothera’s test
(b) Gammelin’s test
(c)Hay’s test
(d) Fouchet’s test
190. Which of the following tests are positive for bile salts?
(a) Hay’s test
(b) Patternkofer’s test
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
191. Which method is used for blood glucose estimation?
(a) Alkaline picrate method
(b) Diacyl monoxime method
(c) Folin Wu method
(d) Bromocresol green dye method
192. Which of the following does not cause haemolysis in GP6D?
(a) Primaquine
(b) Sulfonamide
(c) Asprin
(d) Penicillin
193. Which of the following conjugations is not done by
microsomal enzyme?
(a) Sulfate conjugation
(b) Gultathione conjugation
(c) Acetylation
(d) Glucuronidation
194. Which vitamin deficiency causes cheilosis?
(a) Thiamine (b) Riboflavin
(c) Pyridoxine (d) Biotin
195. Which of the following tests is specific for ketohexoses?
(a) Molisch test
(b) Benedict’s test
(c) Barfoed’s test
(d) Seliwanoff’s test
196. Hopkins-Cole reaction is for which type of amino acid?
(a) Aromatic amino acid
(b) Imidazole ring
(c) Indole ring
(d) None of the above
197. The following protein/ polypeptide has a quaternary
structure.
(a) Chymotrypsin
(b) Haemoglobin
(c) Insulin
(d) Myoglobin
198. Maltose is composed by
(a) Glucose + Galactose
(b) Fructose + Galactose
(c) Glucose + Fructose
(d) Glucose + Glucose
199. Protein X is formed by two chains with 80 amino acids in
one chain and 58 in the other. These two chains are linked by disulfide bonds and all the essential amino acids are present in the structure, but not all the non-essential amino
acids. With this information, we can say that this protein is:
(a) A globular protein
(b) A fibrous protein
(c) A conjugated protein
(d) A complete protein
200. An amino acid that yields acetoacetyl CoA during the catabolism of its carbon skeleton would be considered:
(a) Glycogenic
(b) Ketogenic
(c) Glycogenic and ketogenic
(d) Neither glycogenic nor ketogenic
201. The NH3 produced in muscle degradation of nitrogenated compounds is transported through blood to the liver using ______ as carriers.
(a) Alanine and glutamine
(b) Urea and alanine
(c) NH4 and glutamate
(d) Glutamate and glutamine
202. Nitric oxide and urea have in common __________ as an immediate precursoramino acid.
(a) Aspartate (b) Arginine
(c) Glutamate (d) Phenylalanine
203. The correct conformation of complex proteins is achieved with the help of
(a) Chaperones
(b) Hing domain
(c) Zinc figures
(d) None of the above
204. Which of the following immunoglobulins has B-cell
receptor as major function?
(a) IgA
(b) IgE
(c) IgD
(d) IgG
205. What is the starting material of biotin?
(a) Bisbenzyl succinic acid
(b) Ribulose
(c) Beta-ionone and methylvinyl lactone
(d) Beta -ionone and methyl lactone
206. What is the starting material of ascorbic acid?
(a) Beta -ionone and methyl lactone
(b) Benzaldehyde and isobutraldehyde
(c) Ribose
(d) Ribulose
207. Which of the following occurs due to defect in uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase?
(a) Protoporphyria
(b) Hereditary coporphyria
(c) Porphyria cutaneatarda
(d) Acute intermittant porphyria
208. The P:O ratio for oxidation of FADH2 is?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
209. Which of the following is the sulfur-containing compound involved in decarboxylation reaction?
(a) Choline (b) Lipoic acid
(c) Inositol (d) Niacin
210. Which one is described as “vitamin in search of disease”?
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin E (d) Vitamin H
211. Wernicke–Korsakoff syndrome is due to deficiency of vitamin?
(a) B1 (b) Riboflavin
(c) B7 (d) Niacin
212. Which vitamin decreases circulatory free fatty acid in adipose tissue?
(a) Riboflavin (b) Ascorbic acid
(c) Biotin (d) Niacin
213. Which vitamin is only synthesized by microorganism
and not by plant or animal?
(a) Riboflavin (b) Ascorbic acid
(c) Biotin (d) Cobalamin
214. The reaction given by two or more peptide linkages is?
(a) Biuret test
(b) Ninhydrin test
(c) Xanthoproteic test
(d) Pauley’s test
215. How many base pairs are present in each turn of β-form of DNA helix?
(a) 9 (b) 10
(c) 11 (d) 12
216. Which of the following is the inhibitor of isocitrate dehydrogenase in Krebs cycle?
(a) ATP (b) AMP
(c) ADP (d) NAD
217. In muscular dystrophy serum level of which enzyme is elevated?
(a) Acid phosphatase
(b) Creatinine phosphokinase
(c) Amylase
(d) Aldolase
218. In Wilson’s disease serum level of which enzyme decreases?
(a) Amylase
(b) Ceruloplasmin
(c) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
(d) Creatine phosphokinase
219. In visual cycle, iodopsin gives which pigment?
(a) Red
(b) Green
(c) Yellow
(d) Blue
220. Caprylic acid chemically is
(a) CH3[CH2]4COOH
(b) CH3[CH2]6COOH
(c) CH3[CH2]8COOH
(d) CH3[CH2]10COOH