GPAT-MCQS-SERIES
PART-1
BASIC
PHARMACOLOGY
Jsmasipharmacy.blogspot.com
SYLLABUS:
Introduction to Pharmacology-
Definition, scope and source of drugs, dosage form and routes of drug
administration. Pharmacodynamics-Mechanism of drug action, Receptors, classification
and drug receptors interaction, combined effect of drugs, factors modifying
drug action. Pharmacokinetics-Mechanism and principle of Absorption,
Distribution, Metabolism and Excretion of drugs. Principles of basic and
clinical pharmacokinetics. Pharmacogenetics. Adverse drug reactions. Discovery
and development of new drugs-Preclinical and clinical studies.
1. Following statements are true:
[P] An epidermic means simple
application of medicament on the skin
[Q] An epidermic means
application of medicament by rubbing
[R] Iontophoresis means
application of medicament to and pushing it through skin to reach the blood
vessels by electric transmission
[S] Inunction means simple
application of medicament on the skin
(a) P and Q
(b) Q and R
(c) Q and S
(d) P and R
2. Following statements are true
for intradermal route:
[P] The drug is injected under
skin
[Q] This route is used for
testing sensitivity to drug like penicillin
[R] The drug is given within the
skin layer
[S] Special process of infusing
large amount of drugs like glucose
(a) P and R (b) Q and R
(c) Q and S (d) P and S
3. MgSO4 exerts their various
effects through following route are true:
[P] It produces purgative effect
if given orally
[Q] It produces depressant effect
if given parenterally
[R] It does not produce any
effect if given parenterally
[S] It increases intracranial
tension if given enema
(a) P and Q (b) R and S
(c) Q and S (d) P and S
4. Following statements are true
for passive diffusion:
[P] It is saturable
[Q] It is nonselective
[R] It is energy dependent
[S] It is energy independent
(a) P and R (b) Q and R
(c) Q and S (d) P and S
5. Following statement are true
for facilitated diffusion:
[P] It is unsaturable
[Q] It is Non selective
[R] It is energy dependent
[S] It is energy independent
(a) P and R (b) Q and R
(c) Q and S (d) P and S
6. Transport diffusion is
proportional to concentration
gradient in
[P] Active transport
[Q] Facilitated diffusion
[R] Passive diffusion
[S] Ion pair transport
(a) P and R (b) Q and R
(c) Q and S (d) R and S
7. Following drug have more than
99% protein-binding
capacity
[P] Digoxin [Q] Aspirin
[R] Thyroxine [S] Warfarin
(a) P and Q (b) P and R
(c) Q and S (d) R and S
8. Following drug have less than
50% protein-binding capacity
[P] Insulin
[Q] Aminoglycoside antibiotic
[R] Diazepam
[S] Aspirin
(a) P and Q (b) Q and R
(c) Q and S (d) P and S
9. Spironolactone is a prodrug
and its active metabolite is
(a) Desmethyl spironolactone
(b) Canrencne
(c) Acetylspironolactone
(d) None of the above
10. Most of the drug is absorbed
through
(a) Active transport
(b) Facilitated diffusion
(c) Passive diffusion
(d) Ion pair transport
11. Morphine’s affects the eye
by:
(a) Producing miosis through an
action on the oculomotor nerve
(b) Producing mydriasis through
an action on the sympathetic system
(c) Decreasing pupillary
responses to light
(d) Directly acting on the smooth
muscles of the iris
12. pD2 value means
(a) Negative log of molar
concentration of an antagonist which produces half of the maximum response
(b) Negative log of molar
concentration of an antagonist which produces of the maximum response
(c) Negative log of molar
concentration of an agonist which produces of the maximum response
(d) Negative log of molar
concentration of an agonist which produces half of the maximum response
13. Drug having high affinity but
low intrinsic activity is called
(a) Partial agonist
(b) Antagonist
(c) Non-competitive antagonism
(d) Competitive antagonism
14. Phentolamine is competitive
antagonism of
(a) Acetylcholine (b)
Isoprenaline
(c) Noradrenaline (d) Atropine
15. pA2 can be defined as
(a) Negative log of molar
concentration of an antagonist which produces half of the maximum response
(b) Negative log of molar
concentration of an agonist which produces half of the maximum response
(c) Negative log of molar
concentration of an antagonist in the presence of which double dose of agonist required
to produce same effect as produced in absence of antagonist
(d) Negative log of molar
concentration of an antagonist in the presence of which half dose of agonist
required to produce same effect as produced in absence of
Antagonist
16. Following are the chloride
channel blocker
[P] Amiloride [Q] Cadmium
[R] Picrotoxin [S] Ketamine
(a) R and S (b) Q and R
(c) Q and S (d) P and S
17. Following statements are true
[P] Synergism means if two or
more drugs are taken simultaneously they increase the potency and/or duration
of other drug
[Q] Addition means in which total
effect of two drugs is just equal to the sum of their individual effects
[R] Potentiation means one drug
produces own effect and increases the effect of other drug
[S] Synergism means one drug does
not produce any effect but increases the effect of other drug
(a) P and Q (b) Q and R
(c) Q and S (d) P and S
18. Acetylcholine and
physostigmine are examples of ______ type drug interaction.
(a) Synergism (b) Addition
(c) Potentiation (d) Antagonism
19. In the bioassay the
convulsion activity in mice is
observed during _____ use.
(a) Insulin (b) Histamine
(c) Prolactin (d) Oxytocin
20. Following drugs have volume
of distribution more
than 200:
[P] Warfarin [Q] Amitryptyline
[R] Digoxin [S] Alcohol
(a) P and Q (b) Q and R
(c) Q and S (d) P and S
21. Isolated rabbit jejunum is
used
(a) To check adrenergic activity
and mechanism
(b) To check the activity of
skeletal muscle
(c) To check the activity
straight muscle
(d) None of the above
22. Bioassays are carried out to:
(a) Measure the pharmacological
activity of a drug
(b) Avoid clinical trials for new
drugs
(c) Detect the impurity in a
given drug
(d) Screen from pharmacogenetic
influences of new drugs
23. Which of the following is
CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?
(a) Grape juice (b) Rifampicin
(c) Barbiturates (d)
Carbamazepine
24. Which of the following
receptor shows the slowest response?
(a) GPCR (b) Ion channel
(c) Enzyme linked (d) Steroid
receptor
25. Most common Phase-II reaction
is
(a) Sulfate conjugation:
(b) Glucuronide conjugation
(c) α amino acid conjugation
(d) Methylation
Answer Keys
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5.
(c) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (c)
15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (d)
25. (b)