25.1 The minimal alveolar concentration of an inhalational anaesthetic is a measure of its:
A. Potency
B. Therapeutic index
C. Diffusibility
D. Oil: water partition coefficient
25.2 The primary mechanism by which general anaesthetics produce their action is:
A. Affecting receptor operated ion channels in cerebral neurones
B. Blocking voltage sensitive Na+ channels in neuronal membrane
C. Depressing metabolic activity of cerebral neurones
D. Blocking production of high energy phosphates in the brain
25.3 General anaesthetics produce immobility in response
to painful surgical stimuli by acting primarily at the:
A. Motor cortex
B. Basal ganglia
C. Thalamus
D. Spinal cord
25.4 Which general anaesthetic selectively inhibits excitatory NMDA receptors:
A. Thiopentone
B. Halothane
C. Desflurane
D. Ketamine
25.5 If a patient being anaesthetised with ether is unconscious,
has regular respiration, blood pressure and
heart rate are normal, corneal reflex is present and
eyeballs are roving, the patient is in:
A. Stage II
B. Stage III plane 1
C. Stage III plane 2
25.6 No surgical operation should be performed during
the following stage of anaesthesia:
A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III, plane 1
D. Stage III, plane 3
25.7 Which of the following is a sign of deep anaesthesia:
A. Appearance of tears in eyes
B. Resistance to passive inflation of lungs
C. Fall in blood pressure
D. Patient makes swallowing movements
25.8 The following factor delays induction with an inhaled
general anaesthetic:
A. Alveolar perfusion-ventilation mismatch
B. Hyperventilation
C. Low blood:gas partition coefficient of the anaesthetic
D. Inclusion of 5% carbon dioxide in the inhaled gas mixture
25.9 ‘Second gas effect’ is exerted by the following gas
when coadministered with halothane:
A. Nitrous oxide
B. Cyclopropane
C. Nitrogen
D. Helium
25.10 'Diffusion hypoxia’ is likely to occur only after use of
nitrous oxide because it:
A. Is a respiratory depressant
B. Has low blood solubility and is used in high concentration
C. Is a very potent anaesthetic
D. Interferes with diffusion of oxygen into the tissues
25.11 Select the inhalational general anaesthetic which is
metabolized in the body to a significant extent:
A. Sevoflurane
B. Isoflurane
C. Ether
D. Halothane
25.12 The following anaesthetic can be used by the open
drop method:
A. Ether
B. Desflurane
C. Halothane
D. Isoflurane
25.13 The minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) of halothane is:
A. 75%
B. 25%
C. 7.5%
D. 0.75%
25.14 The following general anaesthetic has poor muscle
relaxant action:
A. Ether
B. Nitrous oxide
C. Halothane
D. Isoflurane
25.15 Select the correct statement about nitrous oxide:
A. It irritates the respiratory mucosa
B. It has poor analgesic action
C. It is primarily used as a carrier and adjuvant to other anaesthetics
D. It frequently induces post anaesthetic nausea and retching
25.16 Ether is still used as a general anaesthetic in India,
specially in peripheral hospitals because:
A. It is nonexplosive
B. It is pleasant smelling and nonirritating
C. It induces anaesthesia rapidly
D. It is cheap and can be administered without anaesthetic machine
25.17 As a general anaesthetic, halothane has the following
advantages except:
A. Very good analgesic action
B. Noninflammable and nonexplosive
C. Reasonably rapid induction of anaesthesia
D. Pleasant and nonirritating
25.18 The general anaesthetic having significant cardiodepressant property is:
A. Halothane
B. Enflurane
C. Ether
D. Nitrous oxide
25.19 Select the general anaesthetic having the most
marked uterine relaxant action:
A. Propofol
B. Halothane
C. Nitrous oxide
D. Ether
25.20 Malignant hyperthermia is a rare complication of use
of the following anaesthetic:
A. Ketamine
B. Thiopentone sodium
C. Halothane
D. Ether
25.21 Select the general anaesthetic that is particularly
suitable for outpatient surgery because of quick
recovery and short-lived post-anaesthetic psychomotor
impairment:
A. Ether
B. Halothane
C. Enflurane
D. Desflurane
25.22 The following is true of sevoflurane except:
A. It induces anaesthesia rapidly
B. It is nonpungent
C. It produces prolonged postanaesthetic psychomotor impairment
D. It is less potent than halothane
25.23 The drug/drugs used mainly for induction of general anaesthesia is/are:
A. Thiopentone sodium
B. Fentanyl + droperidol
C. Ketamine
D. All of the above
25.24 Residual CNS depression is least marked after the
use of the following anaesthetic:
A. Diazepam
B. Thiopentone sodium
C. Lorazepam
D. Propofol
25.25 The anaesthetic action of thiopentone sodium is characterised by:
A. Good muscle relaxation
B. Poor analgesia
C. Sensitization of heart to adrenaline
D. No postoperative residual CNS depression
25.26 Induction of anaesthesia with propofol is often attended by:
A. Transient apnoea
B. Sharp short lasting fall in blood pressure
C. Pain in the injected vein
D. All of the above
25.27 ‘Dissociative anaesthesia’ is produced by:
A. Ketamine
B. Fentanyl
C. Propofol
D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
25.28 Ketamine is the preferred anaesthetic for the following except:
A. Hypertensives
B. Trauma cases who have bled significantly
C. Burn dressing
D. Short operations on asthmatics
25.29 Select the anaesthetic that increases cardiac output and blood pressure:
A. Halothane
B. Fentanyl
C. Ketamine
D. Diazepam
25.30 Intravenous fentanyl is used in balanced anaesthesia to afford:
A. Relaxation of chest muscles
B. Analgesia
C. Unconsciousness
D. Suppression of gastric acid secretion
25.31 Use of morphine in preanaesthetic medication:
A. Is routine except in the presence of contraindications
B. Is restricted to patients being anaesthetised with ether
C. Should be made only in combination with atropine
D. Is restricted mostly to patients in pain preoperatively
25.32 Use of glycopyrrolate in preanaesthetic medication
serves the following purposes except:
A. Prevents respiratory secretions during anaesthesia
B. Guards against reflex vagal bradycardia during surgery
C. Produces amnesia for perioperative events
D. Reduces the probability of occurrence of laryngospasm
25.33 The following drug is routinely used in preanaesthetic
medication for prolonged operations:
A. Atropine
B. Morphine
C. Promethazine
D. Ranitidine
Ans:
25.1 A 25.2 A 25.3D 25.4D 25.5 B 25.6 B 25.7 C 25.8 A 25.9 A 25.10 B 25.11D 25.12 A 25.13D 25.14 B 25.15 C 25.16D 25.17 A 25.18 A 25.19 B 25.20 C 25.21D 25.22 C 25.23 A 25.24D 25.25 B 25.26D 25.27 A 25.28 A 25.29 C 25.30 B 25.31D 25.32 C 25.33D
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