GPAT-MCQS-SERIES PART-4 Central Nervous System

GPAT-MCQS-SERIES

PART-4

Central Nervous System

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SYLLABUS

Neurohumoral transmission in the C.N.S with special emphasis on Pharmacology of various neurotransmitters. General anesthetics. Alcohols and disulfiram. Sedatives, hypnotics and centrally acting muscle relaxants, Psychopharmacological agents: Antipsychotics, antidepressants, antianxiety agents, anti-manics and hallucinogens. Anti-epileptic drugs. Anti-parkinsonism drugs. Nootropics. Narcotic analgesics, drug addiction, drug abuse, tolerance and dependence.

1. Patients who have received MAO inhibitors may experience severe hypertensive crisis if they ingest

(a) Cheese (b) Beer

2. Following are the GABAA receptor agonists:

[P] Muscimol [Q] Gaboxadol

[R] Gabazine [S] Flumazenil

(a) P and Q (b) Q and R (c) P and R (d) Q and S

3. Spiperone is mainly an antagonist on

[P] D1 receptor [Q] D2 receptor

[R] D3 receptor [S] D5 receptor

(a) P and R (b) Q and R (c) P and S (d) R and S

4. Following are the partial agonist of dopamine receptor

[P] Sulpride [Q] Haloperidol [R] Ariprazole [S] Apomorphine

(a) Q and R (b) P and Q (c) P and S (d) R and S

5. Following statement are true for dopamine receptors:

[P] D2 receptor is implicated in schizophrenia

[Q] D4 receptor shows marked polymorphism in human

[R] Behavioural effects are because of dopamine antagonist agent

[S] Dopamine does not act on CTZ

(a) P and R (b) Q and R (c) P and Q (d) R and S

6. Sumatriptan is used to treat

(a) Anxiety (b) Depression (c) Migraine (d) Vomiting

7. All anesthetic agents depress respiration system except

(a) Nitrous oxide (b) Halothane (c) Sevoflurene (d) Desflurene

8. Paracetamol drugs are substrate for

(a) CYP1A2 isoenzyme P450

(b) CYP2E1 isoenzyme P450

(d) CYP1C9 isoenzyme P450

9. Correct statement regarding amitriptyline is

(a) It stimulates adrenergic receptors

(b) It has no significant CV effect

(d) It has mood-elevating effect

10. All of the following benzodiazepines are biotransformed to active products except

(a) Diazepam (b) Alprazolam

11. All commonly used inhalation anaesthetics cause

(a) Renal toxicity

(b) Decreased blood flow

(d) Respiratory depression

12. Carbidopa is useful in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease because it

(a) Is a precursor of L-dopa

(b) Prevents the breakdown of dopamine

(d) Can readily penetrate the CNS

13. Correct statements concerning methadone include all except

(a) Effective analgesic

(b) Well absorbed from GIT

(d) Phenytoin decrease the metabolism of methadone

14. The preferred treatment of status epilepticus is IV administration of

(a) Ethosuximide (b) Sodium valproate

15. Which of the following agent selectively inhibits serotonin uptake?

(a) Desipramine (b) Maprotoline

16. Which of the following gas anesthetic has low potency with a high MAC value?

(a) Halothane (b) Nitrous oxide

17. Correct statements concerning mechanism of drugs used in the treatment of Parkinsonism include

(a) Levodopa enhances the synthesis of dopamine

(b) Bromocriptine is an agonist at dopaminergic receptors

(d) All of the above

18. Postoperative hallucinations or delusions are characteristics features of

(a) Nitrous oxide (b) Fentanyl (c) Halothane (d) Ketamine

19. Principal action of Mono amine oxidase inhibitors is

(a) Inhibition of Noradrenaline

(b) Increase stores of GABA

(d) Block 5HT

20. Adrenaline is used with the administration of a local anaesthetics agent to

(a) Inhibit salivation and secretions of respiratory tract

(b) Prolong the duration action

(d) Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

21. All of the following are pharmacological effects of narcotic analgesic agonist drug except

(a) Suppression of cough reflex

(b) Decreased intestinal peristalsis

(d) Decreased arterial pCO2

22. The primary mechanism of action of local anesthetics is

(a) Blockade of potassium channel

(b) Blockade of calcium channel

(d) Blockade of neurotransmitter action

23. Toxic effect of L-dopa can be reversed by administration of

(a) Folic acid (b) Vitamin B12 (c) Pyridoxine (d) Thiamine

24. Which of the following drug is useful in treating trigeminal neuralgia?

(a) Phenytoin (b) Carbamazepine (c) Sodium valproate (d) Ethosuximide

25. Which of the following drug is contraindicated in the treatment of Parkinsonism?

(a) Pyridoxine (b) Alpha-methyl dopa (c) Carbidopa (d) None of above

26. Antidote for warfarin overdose is

(a) Protamine zinc insulin

(b) Protamine sulfate

(d) None of the above

27. Local anaesthetic with vasoconstrictor effect is

(a) Procaine (b) Lidocaine (c) Bupivacaine (d) Cocaine

28. Which one of the following prevents the development of an abstinence syndrome in a heroin user?

(a) Nalbuphine (b) Naloxone

29. Correct statements concerning carbamazepine include all except

(a) Used in trigeminal neuralgia

(b) Useful in the treatment of generalized tonic–clonic seizures

(d) Untoward effects are drowsiness, vertigo and blurred vision

30. Correct statement concerning phenelzine include

(a) It is an MAO Inhibitor

(b) It produces orthostatic hypotension

(d) All of the above

31. Which of the following reduces peripheral decarboxylation

of L-dopa to enhance its therapeutic effects in Parkinson’s disease?

(a) Carbidopa (b) Amantadine

32. Correct statement regarding phenytoin include all except

(a) Used in grandmal epilepsy

(b) Phenylbutazone reduce metabolism of phenytion

(d) Used in petitmal epilepsy

33. Amphetamine gives sympathomimetic activity by

(a) Inhibiting MAO release

(b) Noradreanaline release

(d) All of the above

34. Ester local anaesthetic with short half-life and low surface activity is

(a) Bupivacaine (b) Cocaine

35. Side effects of phenothiazines include all except

(a) Blood dyscrasias

(b) Obstructive jaundice

(d) Increased GIT motility

36. Treatment of insomnia due to anxiety is with

(a) Paraldehyde (b) Meprobamate (c) Ether (d) Morphine

37. Which of the following should not be given along with levodopa?

(a) Carbidopa (b) Benserazide

38. 5-Hydroxytr yptamine is biosynthesized from ______ aminoacid.

(a) Tryptophan (b) Tryrosine (c) Phenylalanine (d) Alanine

39. Which of the following facilitates the action of GABA?

(a) Chlorpromazine (b) Ethanol (c) Diazepam (d) Imipramine

40. Which of the following local anaesthetics is/are only useful for topical administration

(a) Procaine (b) Bupivacaine (c) Benzocaine (d) All of the above

41. Diffusion hypoxia is produced by following inhalation anaesthetic.

(a) Halothane (b) Methoxyflurane (c) Isoflurane (d) N2O

42. Heroin differs from morphine in all respects except

(a) Synthetic congener of morphine

(b) More constipation

(d) None of above

43. All of the following are monoamine oxidase inhibitors except:

(a) Phenelzine (b) Isocarboxazid (c) Tranylcypromine (d) Maprotiline

44. Which of the following is the only IV anesthetic to

produces cardiovascular stimulation?

(a) Etomidate (b) Ketamine (c) Fentanyl (d) Thiopental

45. The antiepileptic which inhibits the seizures induced by the administration of picrotoxin is __________

(a) Phenytoin (b) Carbamazepine (c) Ethosuximide (d) Sodium valproate

46. Barbiturate excretion in urine may be increased by

(a) Dialysis (b) Acidification (c) Alkalization (d) None of above

47. Phenytoin metabolism is inhibited by

(a) Disulfiram

(b) Chloramphenicol, INH, cimetidine

(d) All of the above

48. Correct statementS. concerning cocaine is/are

(a) Effectively blocks nerve conduction

(b) Blocks reuptake of norepinephrine

(d) All of the above

49. Amantadine in Parkinsonism acts by

(a) Stimulating the release of dopamine from storage sites

(b) Decreasing the decarboxylation of dopamine

(d) None of the above

50. Drug of choice in uteric colic is

(a) Pethidine (b) Nitrates (c) Adrenaline (d) All of the above

51. Mechanism of actionS. of cyproheptadine if given prophylaxis in migraine includeS.

(a) 5-HT2 receptor antagonist

(b) Blocks calcium channel

(d) All of the above

52. Correct statements concerning imipramine include

(a) It is tricyclic antidepressant

(b) Increases anxiety in normal subjects

(d) All of the above

53. Halogenated anaesthetic agents obtained considerable favour because

(a) Cheap

(b) Non-explosive

(d) Not CVS depressant

54. Which of the following benzodiazepine is used as antidepressant?

(a) Diazepam (b) Mianserin

55. Stage II anaesthesia is a stage of

(a) Analgesia (b) Respiratory depression

56. Nitrous oxide is contraindicated in patients with

(a) Myasthenia gravis (b) Polycythemia vera

57. All of the following prostanoid produce bronchoconstriction except

(a) PGI2 (b) PGD2 (c) PGF2α (d) TXA2

58. Effect of curare is potentiated by following anestheticS.

(a) Enflurane (b) Diethyl ether (c) Halothane (d) All of the above

59. Which of the following anesthetic should not be used with adrenaline?

(a) Thiopental (b) Nitrous oxide (c) Cyclopropane (d) Ether

60. Short half-life of thiopental is primarily due to

(a) Excretion of drug (b) Metabolism of drug

61. Drug contraindicated in head injury is

(a) Phenothiazines (b) Carbamazepines (c) Phenytoin (d) Morphine

62. If heparin is contraindicated then for inhibiting platelet aggregation one of the following prostanoids is used

(a) Carboprost (b)Gemeprost (c) Misoprostol (d) Epoprostenol

63. Most frequent side effect of long-term carbamazepine therapy is

(a) Respiratory depression (b) Drowsiness

64. Out of the following the only drug having 100 % bioavailability

(a) Gabapentin (b) Levetiracetam (c) Topiramate (d) Valproate

65. The principal action of noscapin is

(a) Analgesic (b) Antiemetic (c) Antitussive (d) Antihistaminic

66. All of the following is a partial/mixed agonists of opiod receptor except

(a) Nalorphine (b) Naltrexone (c) Nalbupine (d) Pentazocine

67. Neuroleptic analgesia can be converted to neuroleptic anaesthesia by the administration of

(a) Thiopental in oxygen (b) Cyclopropane in oxygen

68. One of the following is not a example of Inhalation anaesthesia

(a) Halothane (b) Thiopental sodium

69. Therapeutic doses of phenytion become toxic when isoniazide administered concomitantly due to

(a) Acceleration of membrane stabilizing action of phenytoin

(b) Decreased metabolism of phenytoin

(d) Inhibition of hepatic microsomal enzyme systems

70. All of the following are NSAID prodrug except

(a) Nabumetone (b) Parecoxib (c) Sulindac (d) Piroxicam

71. Correct statement regarding morphine includes all except

(a) Overdose of morphine producecoma and respiratory depression

(b) Acts as emetics by stimulating CTZ

(d) It decreases pain threshold

72. Which of the following statement is true concerning lidocaine?

(a) Slow onset of action (b) Used as antiarrhythmic agent

73. Drug of choice in acute attack of migraine is

(a) Methylsergide (b) Serotonin

74. Drug of choice in epilepsy with pregnancy

(a) Carbamazepine (b) Ethosuximide (c) Phenobarbiton (d) Phenytoin

75. Which of the barbiturates can cause choleresis?

(a) Thiopental (b) Pentobarbital (c) Phenobarbital (d) Methohexital

76. Metabolism of carbamazepine is inhibited by

(a) Tetracycline (b) Phenobarbital (c) Erythromycin (d) Phenytoin

77. Oxygen therapy is most useful in

(a) CO2 poisoning (b) Methaemoglobinaemia

78. Barbiturate poisoning include all except

(a) Pupil constriction

(b) Babinski sign is positive

(d) Hypotension can occur

79. Chlorpromazine is effective as an antiemetic by

(a) Depressing vomittingcentre

(b) Decrease the nervous input from the vestibular apparatus to the vomiting centre

(d) All of the above

80. Which of the following is highly selective COX-1 antagonist?

(a) Ketorolac (b) Salicylate (c) Rofecoxib (d) Diclofenac

81. When used with ethanol, the following compound produces a “Mickey Finn”?

(a) Glutathemide (b) Paraldehyde (c) Chloral hydrate (d) Meprobamate

82. Which of the phenothiazines have least extrapyramidal effect?

(a) Chlorpromazine (b) Fluphenazien (c) Thioridazine (d) Prochlorperazine

83. Spina bifida is associated with the material use of

(a) Phenytoin

(b) Carbamazepine

(d) All of the above

84. Which one of the following H1-receptor antagonist is sedative?

(a) Levocetrizine (b) Loratidine (c) Fexofenadine (d) Doxylamine

85. Photodermatitis is seen with

(a) Phenothiazines (b) Alcohol (c) Nicotine (d) All of the above

86. Hypnotic used in geriatric patients is

(a) Methyl prylone (b) Meprobamate (c) Paraldehyde (d) Etomidate

87. Mechanism of action of colchicine which is clinically used for gout is

(a) Inhibiting uric acid synthesis

(b) Increasing uric acid excretion

(d) Reduceing leucocyte migration in to joints

88. An anticholinergic drug used in Parkinsonism is

(a) Naloxone (b) Benztropine (c) Levodopa (d) Physostigmine

89. Infliximab is used as

(a) Anticytokines agent (b) Crohn’s disease

90. Which of the following drug is used in hypertensive patients for the diagnosis of pheochromocytoma?

(a) Reserpine (b) Guanethidine (c) Clonidine (d) Methyldopa

91. The most specific agent for treatment of petit mal epilepsy is

(a) Primidone (b) Phenytoin (c) Gabapentin (d) Ethosuximide

92. Recognized side effect of treatment with lithium carbonate is

(a) Proximal tubular degeneration

(b) Hypomagnesaemia

(d) Hypochloremia

93. The appropriate antidote in the treatment of pentazocine over dosage is

(a) Nalorphine (b) Levallorphan

94. Pharmacologic agentwho has the potential to cause increased biliary tree pressure is

(a) Morphine (b) Warfarin (c) Phenytoin (d) Acetazolamide

95. Drug which is known to include “hirsutism” as a sideeffect is:

(a) Thallium (b) Phenytoin (c) Cephalosporin (d) Heparin

96. All of the following are used for the treatment of Alzeimer’s disease except

(a) Donezepil (b) Rivastigmine (c) Galanamine (d) Selegiline

97. Halothane is used as

(a) Intravenous anesthesia

(b) Inhalation anesthesia

(d) None of the above

98. Zolpidem is used in the treatment of

(a) Dementia (b) Parkinson’s disease (c) Hypnotic (d) CNS stimulant

99. Risperidone is agonist of following receptor except

(a) D2-receptor (b) D1-receptor (c) H1-receptor (d) 5-HT2

100. Following statements of tricyclic antidepressant agent are true except

(a) Imipramine is nonselective against nor-adrenaline and 5–HT receptor

(b) Venafaxine is weak nonselective against noradrenaline and 5-HT receptor

(d) Duloxetine is potent selective against nor-adrenaline and 5-HT receptor

Answer Keys

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (b) 21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (a) 31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (c) 41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (a) 50. (a) 51. (d) 52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (c) 61. (d) 62. (d) 63. (b) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (b) 70. (d) 71. (d) 72. (b) 73. (c) 74. (a) 75. (c) 76. (c) 77. (b) 78. (b) 79. (c) 80. (a) 81. (c) 82. (c) 83. (c) 84. (d) 85. (a) 86. (b) 87. (d) 88. (b) 89. (d) 90. (c) 91. (a) 92. (a) 93. (d) 94. (d) 95. (b) 96. (d) 97. (b) 98. (c) 99. (b) 100. (d)

GPAT-MCQS-SERIES PART-4 Central Nervous System

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