10.1 Autacoids differ from hormones in that:
A. Autacoids are involved only in the causation of pathological states
B. Autacoids do not have a specific cell/tissue of origin
C. Autacoids generally act locally at the site of generation and release
D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
10.2 Which of the following is a selective H1 receptor agonist:
A. 4-methyl histamine
B. Impromidine
C. 2-Thiazolyl ethylamine
D. Chlorpheniramine
10.3 The action of histamine that is not mediated through H1 receptors is:
A. Release of EDRF from vascular endothelium resulting in vaso dilatation
B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation
C. Bronchoconstriction
D. Release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla
10.4 Histamine exerts the following actions except:
A. Dilatation of large blood vessels
B. Dilatation of small blood vessels
C. Stimulation of isolated guineapig heart
D. Itching
10.5 Fall in blood pressure caused by larger doses of histamine is blocked by:
A. H1 antihistaminics alone
B. H2 antagonists alone
C. Combination of H1 and H2 antagonists
D. None of the above
10.6 The following statement about histamine is not correct:
A. It is the sole mediator of immediate hypersensitivity reaction
B. It plays no role in delayed hypersensitivity reaction
C. It serves as a neurotransmitter in the brain
D. All types of histamine receptors are G protein coupled receptors
10.7 Histamine is involved as a mediator in the following pathological condition:
A. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction
B. Inflammation
C. Carcinoid syndrome
D. Variant angina
10.8 The drug that can directly release histamine from mast cells without involving antigen-antibody reaction is:
A. Aspirin
B. Procaine
C. Morphine
D. Sulfadiazine
10.9 High anticholinergic property is present in the following antihistaminic:
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Astemizole
C. Cetirizine
D. Terfenadine
10.10 The following H1 antihistaminic has additional anti
5-HT, anticholinergic, sedative and appetite stimulating properties:
A. Promethazine
B. Terfenadine
C. Cyproheptadine
D. Hydroxyzine
10.11 The conventional H1 antihistaminics possess the following additional properties except:
A. Local anaesthetic
B. Vasopressor
C. Antiarrhythmic
D. Catecholamine potentiating
10.12 The capacity of an anti histaminic to produce sedation depends on the following except:
A. Relative affinity for central versus peripheral H1 receptors
B. Ability to penetrate blood-brain barrier
C. Individual susceptibility
D. Ratio of H1:H2 blockade produced by the drug
10.13 While prescribing a first generation H1 antihistaminic the patient should be advised to avoid:
A. Driving motor vehicles
B. Consuming processed cheese
C. Strenuous physical exertion
D. All of the above
10.14 The following is not a feature of second generation antihistaminics:
A. Nonimpairment of psychomotor performance
B. High antimotion sickness activity
C. Absence of anticholinergic/anti 5-HT actions
D. Additional mechanisms of antiallergicaction
10.15 The second generation H1 antihistaminics have the following advantages except:
A. Lack of anticholinergic side effects
B. Lack of alcohol potentiating potential
C. Recipient can drive motor vehicles
D. Good antipruritic action
10.16 The following second generation anti-histaminic is not likely to produce ventricular arrhythmias when administered along with ketoconazole:
A. Mizolastine
B. Ebastine
C. Terfenadine
D. Astemizole
10.17 Select the antihistaminic which blocks cardiac K+ channels when given in high doses or along with drugs that inhibit CYP3A4 isoenzyme:
A. Chlorpheniramine
B. Promethazine
C. Astemizole
D. Loratadine
10.18 Select the antihistaminic which modulates calcium channels and has prominant labyrinthine suppressant property:
A. Cyproheptadine
B. Cinnarizine
C. Clemastine
D. Cetirizine
10.19 Erythromycin should not be given to a patient being treated with terfenadine because:
A. Erythromycin induces the metabolism of terfenadine
B. Dangerous ventricular arrhythmias can occur
C. Terfenadine inhibitis metabolism of erythromycin
D. Terfenadine antagonizes the antimicrobial action of erythromycin
10.20 Fexofenadine differs from terfenadine in that:
A. It undergoes high first pass metabolism in liver
B. It is a prodrug
C. It does not block cardiac delayed rectifier K+ channels
D. It has high affinity for central H1 receptors
10.21 Select the H1 antihistaminic which is used topically in the nose for allergic rhinitis:
A. Loratadine
B. Cetirizine
C. Fexofenadine
D. Azelastine
10.22 H1 antihistaminics are beneficial in:
A. All types of allergic disorders
B. Certain type I allergic reactions only
C. Certain type IV allergic reactions only
D. Bronchial asthma
10.23 Benefit afforded by certain H1 antihistaminics in the following condition is not based on antagonism of histamine:
A. Dermographism
B. Insect bite
C. Common cold
D. Seasonal hay fever
10.1 D 10.2 C 10.3 B 10.4 A 10.5 C 10.6 A 10.7 B 10.8 C 10.9 A 10.10 C 10.11 B 10.12 D 10.13 A 14 B 10.15 D 10.16 A 10.17 C 10.18 B 10.19 B 10.20 C 10.21 D 10.22 B 10.23 C