1. Talcum powder is commonly sterilized by
(a) Dry heat
(b) Moist heat
(c) Gaseous sterilization
(d) None of the above
2. Which test is performed for the diagnosis of Typhoid?
(a) Dick test
(b) Widal test
(c) Tine test
(d) Schik Test
3. Which of the following strain of cholera is used in Vaccine?
(a) Oka strain
(b) Inaba and Ogawa
(c) Wistar RA37/3
(d) Both a and c
4. In dry heat sterilization object is heated at
(a) 160°, 3h
(b) 180°, 2h
(c) 180°, 1 h
(d) 160°, 2 h
5. Anaphylaxis reaction is due to which antibody?
(a) IgA
(b) IgE
(c) IgM
(d) IgG
6. Varicella zoster is the causative organism for
(a) Small pox
(b) Dermatophytosis
(c) Herpes
(d) Infectious monocucleosis
7. Contact dermatitis and photosensitization are which type of allergic reaction?
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
8. Antiglobulin or Coomb’s test is for
(a) Detection of non agglutinating antibodies (Brucellosis)
(b) Detection of agglutinating antibodies
(c) Detection of all type of antibodies
(d) Detection of mycoplasmal pneumonia
9. Transtuzumab belongs to which type of monoclonal antibody?
(a) Murine
(b) Chimeric
(c) Humanized
(d) Human monoclonal antibody
10. Biological indicator used for moist heat sterilization is
(a) Bacillus subtilis
(b) Bacillus pumilis
(c) Clostridium sporogenes
(d) Aquaticus thermophilus
11. India Ink method is used for
(a) Flagella staining
(b) Capsule staining
(c) Gram staining
(d) Spore staining
12. Anaphylaxis reaction is due to which antibody?
(a) IgA
(b) IgE
(c) IgM
(d) IgG
13. As per IP surgical dressings should be stored at a temperature not exceeding:-
(a) 50°C
(b) 60°C
(c) 40°C
(d) 25°C
14. Which test is performed for the diagnosis of scarlet
fever?
(a) Widal test
(b) Frie’s test
(c) Schultz Charton test
(d) Tine test
15. During autoclaving of dextrose solution, a straw colour is observed. It is due to the presence of substance called
(a) Furfural
(b) 5-hydroxymethylfurfural
(c) 5-hydroxyfurfural
(d) 5-methylfurfural
16. Dose of gamma radiation used for sterilization is
(a) 20 kGy
(b) 25 kGy
(c) 30 kGy
(d) 50 kGy
17. Which of the following is an example of roundworm?
(a) Taenia saginata
(b) Ascaris lumbricoids
(c) Trichiuris trichiura
(d) None of these
18. Staphylococcus epidermidis is used for the assay of
(a) Gentamycin
(b) Neomycin
(c) Clarithromycin
(d) Both (a) and (b)
19. Anaphylaxis reaction happens due to which antibody?
(a) IgA
(b) IgE
(c) IgM
(d) IgG
20. Which antibody is responsible for the host to protect from bacteria and virus and provide passive immunity
to foetus?
(a) lgM
(b) lgA
(c) lgG
(d) lgD
21. Staphylococcus epidermidis is used for the assay of
(a) Gentamycin
(b) Neomycin
(c) Clarithromycin
(d) Both (a) and(b) both
22. α-amylase is obtained from which micro organism?
(a) Aspergillus oryzae
(b) Aspargillus niger
(c) Bacillus subtilis
(d) All of above
23. Fragile heat-sensitive equipments are sterilized by which method?
(a) Gama radiation
(b) Ethylene oxide
(c) Chemical sterilization
(d) None
24. All metal syringes are sterilized by which method?
(a) Moist heat
(b) Gamma radiation
(c) Dry heat
(d) Ethylene oxide
25. Mycobacterium smegmat is used for the assay of which of the following?
(a) Tetracyclin
(b) Amikacin
(c) Bleomycin
(d) Novobiocin
26. Sabine polio vaccine is absorbed from GIT by which mechanism?
(a) Passive diffusion
(b) Pinocytosis
(c) Active transport
(d) Phagocytosis
27. Which test is performed to test the susceptibility to diphtheria?
(a) Schik test
(b) Mantoux test
(c) Lepromin test
(d) Dick test
28. Temperature used for sterilization of vaccines is
______.
(a) 71–72°C
(b) 61–62°C
(c) 55–60°C
(d) 98–100°C
29. Which test is performed for the diagnosis of typhoid?
(a) Dick test (b) Widal test
(c) Tine test (d) Schik test
30. Riedel walker coefficient of grade 2 disinfectant is
(a) 5 (b) 10
(c) 15 (d) 20
31. Kanamycin B is assayed using one of the following micro organisms:
(a) Bacillus cereus
(b) Bacillus subtilius
(c) Bacillus pumilus
(d) Micrococcus luteus
32. Plastic containers are normally sterilized with
(a) Ethylene oxide
(b) Dry heat
(c) Millipore
(d) Autoclaving
33. Which of the following antibody is pentamer?
(a) Ig G (b) Ig M
(c) lg A (d) Ig D
34. Teichoic acids are the main surface antigen of which organism?
(a) Gram negative
(b) Gram positive
(c) Virus
(d) None
35. Which of the following is not an acid fast organism?
(a) Mycobacteria
(b) Ascospore of certain yeast
(c) Spirochetes
(d) Exoskeleton of insects
36. Fontana’s method is for the staining of which of the following?
(a) Spore of bacteria
(b) Spirochetes staining
(c) Flagella
(d) Capsule staining
37. Lovastatin is obtained from
(a) Aspergillus
(b) Bacillus
(c) Staphylococcus
(d) Streptococcus
38. Syphilis is the STD caused by
(a) Clostridium tetani
(b) Clostridium botulinum
(c) Treponema palladium
(d) None
39. As per the WHO suggestion, microbial load for Salmonella in case of “Ready for internal use” is
(a) NIL (b) 103
(c) 104 (d) 107
40. Rifamycin is obtained from which micro organism
(a) Streptomyces spectabilis
(b) Streptomyces fluorescens
(c) Streptomyces mediterranei
(d) Streptomyces griseus
41. The causative organism of hepatitis B is
(a) Single-strand DNA
(b) Double-strand DNA
(c) Single-strand RNA
(d) All of above
42. A highly sensitive semi quantitative method of detecting microbial antigens in biological fluid is
(a) Counter-immune electrophoresis
(b) Nitroblue tetrazolium dye assay
(c) Coomb’s test
(d) Radio-immune electrophoresis
43. Which of the following is murine-type antibody?
(a) Adalimumab (b) Transtuzumab
(c) Rituxumab (d) Tositumomub
44. Which of following source is used for DNA polymerase in PCR?
(a) E.coli
(b) Staphylococcus species
(c) Thermus aquaticus
(d) Plasmodium species
45. Which of the following is used as live-attenuated vaccine?
(a) BCG
(b) Sabin vaccine
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Salk vaccine
46. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
(a) Is usually sensitive to vancomycin
(b) Is more likely to cause deep-seated infection
(c) Is often resistant to many antistaphylococcal antibiotics
(d) May cause asymptomatic colonization
47. Aminoglycoside antibiotics, such as gentamicin
(a) Act on the bacterial cell wall
(b) Are active against staphylococci
(c) Are effective in the treatment of anaerobic myositis
(d) Are contraindicated in patients with renal impairment
48. The following are causes of gas gangrene in man except
(a) Clostridium histolyticum
(b) Clostridium septicum
(c) Clostridium novyi
(d) Clostridium sporogenes
49. Triple vaccine for the prevention of virus infections protects against
(a) Mumps virus (b) Coxsackie virus
(c) Measles virus (d) Rubella virus
50. HIV can be detected and confirmed by
(a) Polymerase chain reaction
(b) Reverse transcriptase-PCR
(c) Real-time PCR
(d) All
51. Virus mediated transfer of host DNA from one cell to another is known as?
(a) Transduction (b) Transformation
(c) Transcription (d) Integration
52. The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum?
(a) IgG1 (b) IgG2
(c) IgG3 (d) IgG4
53. The following Gram negative bacteria are known to cause corneal ulcer except
(a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(b) Moraxella lacunata
(c) Bacillus brevis
(d) Klebsiella pneumoniae
54. Causative organism for whooping cough is ________
(a) Clostridium titanium
(b) Bacillus pertussis
(c) Treponema palladium
(d) Vibrio cholera
55. Coomb’s test is for
(a) Typhoids (b) Syphilis
(c) Yellow fever (d) Antiglobulin
56. Bacteria spores:
(a) Allow the bacteria to multiple in adverse condition
(b) Are usually formed by Gram-negative bacteria
(c) Can be identified with Gram stains.
(d) Are killed by temperature of 120° for 20 minutes.
57. The following are used to detect antibodies: except
(a) Complement fixation
(b) Haemaglutination inhibition
(c) Coagulase test
(d) Indirect immunofluorescence
58. Stains useful for identifying fungus include the following, except
(a) Gram stain
(b) Haematoxylin and eosin
(c) Gomori methanamine silver
(d) PAS (Periodic acid-Schiff)
59. The following contain live-attenuated live vaccines, except
(a) Polio
(b) Hepatitis A
(c) Yellow fever
(d) Measles
60. Hepatitis B virus, except
(a) Is a DNA virus
(b) The presence of antigen indicates increased infectivity
(c) Antibody to surface antigen usually appears within 2 weeks of infection
(d) Is a recognized cause of liver cancer
61. The following drug acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis of the micro-organisms:
(a) Gentamicin
(b) Cefuroxime
(c) Amphotericin b
(d) Erythromycin.
62. All options are true for Mantoux test, except
(a) It involves injecting PPD (purified protein derivative) intradermally
(b) Is more sensitive than the tine test
(c) It becomes positive within 3 weeks of acquiring tuberculosis
(d) It involves CD4 cells
63. The following are true about Pseudomonas aeruginosa, except
(a) It is a Gram-negative bacteria
(b) It can cause osteomyelitis
(c) It is sensitive to chloramphenicol
(d) It is sensitive to ciprofloxacin
64. All are true with Staphylococcus aureus, except
(a) Is sensitive to fusidic acid
(b) Is resistant to phagocytosis by neutrophils
(c) It produces exotoxins
(d) Is the most common cause of carbuncle
65. Causative organism for syphilis is ___________
(a) Clostridium titanium
(b) Bacillus pertussis
(c) Treponema palladium
(d) Vibrio cholera
66. With regard to antibiotics which sentence is not correct:
(a) Vancomycin and penicillin inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis through the same mechanisms.
(b) Vancomycin is poorly absorbed from the gut
(c) Metronidazole crosses the blood–brain barrier readily
(d) Sulphonamides crosses the blood–brain barrier readily
67. The following are true about disinfectants that can be used effectively for skin:
(a) Glutaraldehyde
(b) Chlorhexidine
(c) Ethyl alcohol with povidoneiodine
(d) Both (b) and (c)
68. Viral with oncogenic properties in humans include the following: Eexcept
(a) Measles virus
(b) Hepatitis B virus
(c) Papovavirus
(d) Epstein–Barr virus
69. Antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis include: Except
(a) Cefuroxime (b) Erythromycin
(c) Vancomycin (d) Benzylpenicillin
70. Aminoglycosides
(a) Act on the bacterial cell wall
(b) Are useful against anaerobes
(c) Should not be used in patients with renal failure
(d) Damage the cochlear nerve
71. With regard to interferons all are true, except
(a) They are produced by B lymphocytes
(b) IFN alpha is produced by cells infected with virus
(c) IFN alpha increases MCH class I and II expression in antigen presenting cell
(d) They have anti-tumour activity
72. False option in case of Clostridium tetani is that it
(a) Causes gas gangrene
(b) Produces an exotoxin
(c) Has a terminal spore
(d) Is an obligatory anaerobe
73. Staphylococcus aureus is sensitive to:
(a) Vancomycin (b) Cefuroxime
(c) Clindamycin (d) All of above
74. Widal test is for ______________
(a) VDRL (b) Kahn’s test
(c) AIDS (d) Typhoids
75. Diphtheria is caused by ______________
(a) Bacteria (b) Viral
(c) Both A and B (d) None of above
76. Polio is caused by ______________
(a) Bacteria (b) Virus
(c) Both a and b (d) None of above
77. BCG is ______________ type of vaccine.
(a) Live (b) Subunit
(c) Killed (d) All
78. Sabin is ______________ type of vaccine.
(a) Live (b) Subunit
(c) Killed (d) All
79. Toxoids are used for ______________
(a) Tuberculosis (b) Typhoid
(c) Enteric fever (d) Diphtheria
80. Bacillus subtilis is used in assay of ______________ antibiotics.
(a) Kanamycin B (b) Rifampicin
(c) Streptomycin (d) All
81. Bacillus cereus is used in assay of ______________ antibiotics.
(a) Kanamycin B (b) Rifampicin
(c) Streptomycin (d) Tetracycline
82. Staphylococeus aureus is used in assay of _________ antibiotics.
(a) Kanamycin sulphate
(b) Doxycycline
(c) Cephalexin
(d) All
83. E coli is used in assay of ____________
(a) Carbencillin (b) Chloramphenicol
(c) Gentamycin (d) Nystatin
84. Autotrophs isare bacteria that ____________
(a) Derive energy from sunlight
(b) Derive energy by chemical reaction
(c) Synthesis all their organic components
(d) Do not synthesize their organic components
85. Presence of tuberculosis in human is detected by
_____________ test.
(a) Amidase test
(b) Niacin test
(c) Catalase peroxidase test
(d) All
86. Presence of leprosy in human is detected by _______ test.
(a) Lapromin test
(b) Niacin test
(c) Catalase peroxidase test
(d) All
87. Small pox vaccine contain
(a) Inactivated or killed virus
(b) Living virus of vaccine
(c) Sterile preparation of killed or fixed virus of rabiesbin only dried form
(d) Sterile suspension of killed typhoid bacilli
88. Polio virus is storage at
(a) 2–8ºC
(b) 5°C
(c) Below 0°C
(d) –10°C
89. Chocolate agar is made from
(a) Mineral salt solution, glycerol, whole egg
(b) Nutrient broth and agar (2–3%)
(c) Nutrient agar and 5–10% sheep blood horse blood
(d) Peptone water + agar bile salt 0.5% lactose + 1% neutral red
90. Bacillus subtillis suspension is storage at less than 4°C for
(a) 1 week
(b) 2 weeks
(c) 3 months
(d) 6 months
Answer Keys
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (c) 21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (b) 31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (d) 41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (b) 51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (c) 54. (b) 55. (d) 56. (d) 57. (c) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (c) 61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (a) 67. (d) 68. (a) 69. (b) 70. (d) 71. (a) 72. (a) 73. (d) 74. (d) 75. (a) 76. (b) 77. (a) 78. (a) 79. (d) 80. (d) 81. (d) 82. (d) 83. (b) 84. (c) 85. (d) 86. (a) 87. (b) 88. (d) 89. (c) 90. (d)