Chapter 1
a. Thrombin
b. Cyclosporine
c. aspirin
d. none of the above
2. The …………… is at its largest in children, but with the onset of puberty it eventually shrinks and gets
replaced by fat.
a. Thymus
b. Hypothalamus
c. Parathyroid gland
d. none of the above
3. Which of the following diseases has been eradicated?
a. Smallpox
b. Rinderpest
c. polio
d. all of the above
4. A kind of an injury or damage which results in the premature death of all the nearby cells in a tissue or
an organ through Auto lysis is called…
a. Neurosis
b. necrosis
c. apoptosis
d. cellular sensation.
5. The immune system comprises …..
a. Humoral and fibrous systems
b. humoral and cell-mediated systems
c. antigen
d. lymphocytes
6. Which of the following is a viral disease?
a. diphtheria
b. Filariasis
c. leprosy
d. influenza
7. Carcinoma arises from the ….
a. Epithelial cells
b. bone marrow
c. pigment containing cells
d. none of the above.
8. ----- is an example of a stimulant.
a. Lorazepam
b. amphetamine
c. oxazepam
d. phencyclidine
9. Which of the following is the most essential nutrient for a woman during her initial stages of pregnancy
to prevent birth defects?
a. Thiamine
b. folic acid
c. vitamin C
d. vitamin E
10. Which of the following food sources has the highest levels of vitamin C?
a. Parsley
b. broccoli
c. blackcurrants
d. orange juice
11. Which of the following vitamin helps in blood clotting?
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin C
c. vitamin D
d. vitamin K
12. Which is the leading cause of blindness in children worldwide?
a. Glaucoma
b. cataract
c. color blindness
d. vitamin A deficiency
13. which of the following vitamin deficiency causes beriberi?
a. Vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. vitamin B6
d. vitamin B12
14. Who is the most likely to develop scurvy?
a. vitamin C deficiency
b. A pregnant woman a malnourished child
c. a long time alcoholic a person with the eating disorder
d. Anorexia nervosa
15. Which of the following vitamin functions as both hormones and visual pigment?
a. retinal
b. riboflavin
c. folic acid
d. thiamine
16. Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?
a. vitamin B
b. vitamin C
c. vitamin B12
d. vitamin D
17. Which of the following diseases is caused by the deficiency of niacin?
a. Scurvy
b. Rickets
c. Pellagra
d. pernicious anemia
18. Which of the following vitamins serve as a hormone precursor?
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin C
c. vitamin D
d. vitamin K
19. The most serious problem facing Global Health now and in future is..
a. nutrition
b. water
c. oil
d. smoking
20. The leading cause of poor health globally is..
a. Poverty
b. smoking
c. sanitation
d. cardiovascular disease
21. The leading infectious disease killer globally in 2001 was:
a. respiratory diseases
b. HIV or Aids
c. Diarrheal diseases
d. Tuberculosis
22. Which of the following is or are related to overnutrition?
a. Obesity
b. type 2 diabetes
c. cardiovascular disease
d. all of the above.
23. Breastfeeding is important to an infant's health because….
a. it is not affected by the mothers nutritional status.
b. It transfers immunity against certain infectious diseases.
c. It decreases the mothers chances of getting pregnant
d. all of the above
24. Fortunately for infants in poor Nations, the nutritional Value of the mother's breast milk is not affected
by her own diet.
a. True
b. False
25. The epidemiological transition is
a. The elimination of infectious diseases and the increase in chronic diseases as the major problem
in developing countries,
b. the continuing problem of infectious diseases plus the rapid increase in chronic diseases in
developing countries
c. the development of epidemiology as a major discipline in developing countries.
26. The primary objective of immunization program is to
a. prevent infection
b. prevent disease
c. prevent further transmission of the disease agent
d. all of the above
27. The most important requirement of a vaccine is
a. safety
b. ability to stimulate antibody production
c. ability to stimulate an immune response
d. the proportion of infectious prevented
28. The inadequate absorption or availability of proteins and energy in body is known as:
a. protein energy malnutrition
b. pepsin enzyme malnutrition
c. passing energy malnutrition
d. protein excess malnutrition
29. The problems related to nutrition of nutrients is called
a. malnutrition
b. solubility of nutrition
c. insolubility of nutrition
d. balancing of nutrition.
Chapter 2
1. Which of the following is a set of bacterial diseases?
a. Malaria, polio, mumps
b. Plague, leprosy, diphtheria.
c. Mumps, cholera, typhoid
d. measles Tuberculosis Tetanus
2. Vibrio Cholerae is a motile bacterium, which belong to the group of –
a. Lophotrichous
b. Peritrichous
c. Monotrichous
d. Amphitrichous
3. What is the standard treatment of Cholera?
a. ORS replacement therapy
b. Tetracycline antibiotics
c. Trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole
d. Diuretic drugs?
4. What is the full frame of SARS?
a. Severe acute respiratory syndrome
b. Severe acute Respiratory symptoms
c. Severe actual respiratory symptoms
d. Serious acute respiratory syndrome
5. What is the biggest risk factor for the infection with Ebola?
a. working in a category IV laboratory
b. Nursing a patient at home
c. Attending of funeral of a victim outside
d. Attending large gatherings
6. Ebola virus disease is a type of….
a. viral hemorrhagic fever
b. Avian Influenza
c. plague
d. viral respiratory illness
7. Incubation period of Ebola virus is ...
a. within an hour
b. 2 to 21 days
c. within 48 hours
d. 2 to 7 days.
8. Which of the following indicates hypertensive crisis?
a. blood pressure of 140 /99 mmhg
b. BP of 160 / 100 mmhg
c. BP of 150 / 99 mmhg
d. BP of 180 / 120 mmhg
9. what are the top three modifiable risk factors for developing cancer?
a. Tobacco use, excess body weight, alcohol intake
b. Tobacco use, cancer-causing pathogens, physical inactivity
c. Tobacco use Sun / UV exposure, alcoholic use
d. Tobacco use, Sun / UV exposure, excess body weight
10. Changing or modifying certain behaviors can reduce your risk for developing cancer, which of
the following lifestyle modification can reduce your risk of cancer.
a. Stay Physically Active
b. limit consumption of red meat and processed food
c. limit alcohol consumption
d. all of the above
11. Which of the following drop functions as a CNS depressant?
a. amphetamine
b. caffeine
c. opium
d. cocaine
12. compulsory drinking is also called…
a. Dipsomania
b. Pyromania
c. Trichotillomania
d. Dyslexia
13. Substance abuse is…
a. taking of a drug or alcohol in damaging quantities or in quantities other than prescribed
b. typified by continued use of alcohol or other drugs in spite of negative consequences
c. characterized by repeated compulsive seeking or use of a l substance despite adverse social psychological and / or physical consequences
d. use of any drug
14. Filarial larvae can be collected from man's…
a. peripheral blood at midnight
b. smears of spleen
c. smears of intestinal contents
d. biopsy of liver
15. This does not accurately describe lymphatic filariasis.
a. Vector is the mollusc
b. chyluria is the most common manifestation
c. Mainly affects the lower limb
d. Caused by worms wuchereriabancrofti
16. Which of the following coronavirus is has goes to thousands of deaths around the world as an
emergent virus?
a. MERS
b. SARS
c. OC43
d. HKU1
17. Chikungunya is primarily spread by…
a. bacteria
b. viruses
c. protozoa
d. mollusc
18. Chikungunya has spread widely from Asia and Africa into the Caribbean in recent years. This has
been mainly facilitated by
a. mutation in the virus allowing the replication in the mosquito aedesalbopictus
b. Air travel
c. climate change
d. poor mosquito control and absence of the DTT.
19. Mosquito responsible for malaria transmission..
a. Aedesegypti
b. Aedesalbopictus
c. Anopheles
d. Haemagogus
20. Trophozoites, scizonts and gamatocytes of all the malarial parasites are seen in the peripheral
blood smear except;
a. P.falciparum
b. P.malariae
c. P.Ovale
d. P.vivax
21. Which of the following can repel mosquitoes…
a. banana
b. chili
c. citronella
d. garlic
22. At what age should you have your first screening for high blood pressure…
a. 16
b. 18
c. 30
d. 50
23. What is the most common symptom of high blood pressure?
a. racing heartbeat
b. fatigue
c. high body temperature
d. It has no symptoms that you notice
24. This measure does not help to prevent diabetes complications
a. controlling blood lipids and blood pressure
b. controlling blood glucose
c. prompt detection of diabetic eye and kidney
d. eliminating all carbohydrates from the diet
25. Gestational diabetes is diagnosed by:
a. Glucose tolerance test
b. fasting and postprandial blood sugar
c. random blood sugar
d. 24 hours blood glucose profile
26. Vibrio Cholera is a motel bacterium. Which belong to the group of..
a. Lophotrichous
b. Peritrichous
c. Monotrichous
d. Amphitrichous
27. What is /are the Primary goals of oral replacement therapy?
a. replace lost water and electrolytes
b. kill vibrio Cholerae
c. slow down the heart rate
d. prevent transmission of the vibrio cholerae
28. Which makes SARS even more difficult to diagnose?
a. asymptomatic nature
b. symptoms same as common cold and flu
c. Mistake in lab tests
d. all of the above
29. Which Laboratory test is the criteria standard for diagnosis of viral community-acquired
pneumonia in adults?
a. viral culture
b. Rapid RSV test
c. Rapid antigen testing
d. nasal swab test
30. Risk factors for Hospital acquired pneumonia include all of the following except
a. presence of COPD
b. obesity
c. duration of surgery
d. age older than 60 years.
Chapter 3
1. World’s AIDS day was observed on which day?
a. 30th November
b. 2nd December
c. 1st December
d. 3rd December
2. Consider the following statements:
A. In 1986 first case of AIDS was detected in India.
B. In 1992. India's first national AIDS control program was launched. Also National AIDS control organization was constituted to implement the program.
C. A National Council on AIDS chaired by the Prime Minister.
D. Currently NACO is working on special software to link Aadhar cards of AIDS patients.
Which of the above statements are true?
a. 1, 3, 4
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1,4
d. All of the above
3. Which body is responsible for formulating policy and implementing programs for prevention and
control of HIV in India?
a. AIMS
b. IIM
c. IIT
d. NACO
4. On which date the World Health Organization recognize to celebrate the void tuberculosis day.
a. 24th March
b. 7 th April
c. 24th April
d. 14th November
5. World Health Organization recommended a control strategy for TB known as:
a. dots
b. morphine
c. gene therapy
d. MCT
6. NL EP was launched in…
a. 1983
b. 1990
c. 1980
d. 1985
7. Full form of DPMR..
a. Direction prevention and medical Rehabilitation
b. Disability prevention and medical research
c. Disability prevention and medical Rehabilitation
d. None of the above
8. The indicator is to decrease the visible disabilities to less than one per one lakh population in the
community in NLEP is by-----
a. 2030
b. 2015
c. 2020
d. 2025
9. National mental health program was launched in…
a. 1982
b. 1985
c. 1980
d. 1990
10. In which we are the main power development scheme became part National mental health program.
a. 2010
b. 2009
c. 2015
d. 2013
11. Who on --- removed India from the list of countries with active endemic wild poliovirus
transmission.
a. 24th February 2012
b. 28th February 2012
c. 10th February 2012
d. 15th February 2012
12. Eye donation for night is observed on..
a. 25 August to 8 September
b. 28 August to 8 September
c. 22 August to 1st to September
d. None.
13. The last polio case in the country was reported from….
a. West Bengal
b. Gujarat
c. Delhi
d. Orissa
14. Under program NPCB Vision 2020 is..
a. the right to sight
b. the outh to sight
c. both
d. none
15. Biggest achievement of immunization program is the eradication of
a. Chickenpox
b. Smallpox
c. Tetanus
d. TB
16. Vaccine under UIP..
a. BCG
b. DPT
c. OPV
d. above all
17. diseases protected by vaccination under UIP are
a. diphtheria
b. pertussis
c. tetanus
d. above all
18. Full form of AEFI…
a. Adverse Events following immunization
b. Adverse Events for immunization
c. Adverse evidence following immunization
d. none
19. Measles Rubella vaccine was introduced in
a. 1985
b. 2017
c. 2018
d. 2005
20. Misson IndraDhanush was launched in
a. 2014 -15
b. 2010-12
c. 2017-18
d. 2009-10
21. National program for prevention and control of deafness was launched in
a. 2005
b. 2007
c. 2010
d. 2015
22. Full form of NLEP…
a. National leprosy eradication process
b. National leprosy enrollment program
c. National leprosy eradication program
d. none of the above
23. 24/7 call center receive disease alerts all across the country on a toll-free number is..
a. 1075
b. 108
c. 1096
d. 1086
24. Parts of surveillance unit in IDSP are
a. BSU
b. CSU
c. SSU
d. Above all
25. Nikshyaposhakyojan is centrally sponsored scheme under..
a. National Health Mission
b. National Urban Health Mission
c. National rural Health Mission
d. None
26. Full form of Dot..
a. Directly observed treatment
b. directional observed treatment
c. documental observed treatment
d. above all
27. TB elimination has been integrated into the four strategic pillars of “detect -treat- prevent- build”
a. true
b. false
28. TB is caused by..
a. virus
b. bacteria
c. protozoa
d. fungi
29. HIV is caused by..
a. virus
b. bacteria
c. protozoa
d. fungi
30. What are the types of blindness?
a. curable
b. absolute
c. social
d. above all
Chapter 4
1. What is the full form of MTP?
a. Medical termination of parturition
b. Medical termination of pregnancy
c. mechanical transfer of pollen
d. maternally transmitted pathogens
2. The programs to get total reproductive health as a social goal of national level are called
a. family organization
b. Family Planning
c. Family Care
d. reproductive care
3. which of the following is used for grading protein energy malnutrition?
a. Ballard's scale
b. Gomez scale
c. Bishop scoring
d. Krammer’s rule
4. Which type of the following food is rich in omega-3 fatty acids?
a. oily fish
b. chicken
c. pork
d. egg
5. Which of the following food item believed to be complete meal or balanced diet?
a. vegetables
b. fruits
c. milk
d. honey
6. Which one of the following is the main target of family welfare programs?
a. couples in the fertile age
b. children below 12 years
c. woman after fertile age
d. male after fertile age
7. Which one of the following is the activity of the family welfare program?
a. malnutrition program
b. child marriage
c. IUD program
d. one child One Nation policy
8. When the Family Planning Insurance scheme was introduced?
a. 2003
b. 2005
c. 2007
d. 2009
9. Which is the first state in India to recognize the family web planning to Nation planning?
a. Kerala
b. Goa
c. Karnataka
d. Tamil Nadu
10. Which is the first country to initiate a family planning program in the world?
a. Brazil
b. Pakistan
c. India
d. France
11. What is the additive drug in tobacco?
a. ethanol
b. nicotine
c. ammonia
d. tar
12. Which of the following disease is commonly caused by spit tobacco?
a. lung cancer
b. liver cancer
c. brain cancer
d. mouth cancer
13. Which of the following is not an effect of smoking during pregnancy?
a. low birth weight, leading to breathing and other health problems
b. premature birth, leading to breathing and other health problems
c. Birth defects such as missing limbs or malformed ears
d. Learning and behavior problems later in childhood
14. What is the leading cancer killer of women in United States?
a. oral cancer from spit tobacco
b. breast cancer from various causes
c. liver cancer from excess alcohol consumption
d. lung cancer from smoking
15. Mosquito responsible for malaria transmission
a. Aedes aegypti
b. Aedes albopictus
c. Anopheles
16. How many people are at risk of malaria in the world?
a. 1.2 million
b. 1.2 billion
c. 3.2 million
d. 3.2 billion
17. We can protect ourselves from malaria…
a. using mosquito repellent
b. wearing light-colored, long-sleeved shirts and trousers
c. sleeping under insecticide-treated bed nets
d. all of this
18. There is a vaccine against malaria.
a. true
b. false
19. The term ageism was coined by
a. Robert Butler
b. Ignatz leo nascher
c. Dr. O. P. Sharma
d. Dr. Sharad Gokhale
20. The elderly population (>60years) accounted for what percent of total population of India in 2011?
a. 6.2%
b. 7.2%
c. 8.3%
d. 9.3%
21. About 64/1000 elderly persons in rural areas and 55/1000 in urban areas suffer from one or more disabilities the most common disability among the elderly in India is
a. Locomotor disability
b. visual disability
c. hearing disability
d. speech disability
22. Which of the following institutions in India does not conduct a geriatric treat medicine courses?
a. IGNOU
b. AIIMS Delhi
c. Mysore Medical College
d. Madras Medical College
23. which of the following mentioned portals and sub programs were created under sarva shiksha, abhiyan ?
a. Rashtriya Avishkar Abhiyan
b. Padhe Bharat Badhu Bharat
c. Shagun portal
d. All of the above
24. what does ‘S’ stand for in SATH, an initiative by government of India to initiate transformation in health and education sectors by associating with States?
a. sustainable
b. supervisory
c. social
d. all of the above
25. Under Swatch swastika server through financial assistance of - rupees will be given to the
community health centers for that. They can be strengthened to meet the standards of Sanitation hygiene and infection control
a. 10 lakhs
b. 15 lakhs
c. 20 lakhs
d. 25 lakhs
26. which of the following statements about the Deen Dayal upadhaya grameen kaushalaya
yojana is not correct?
a. It is a placement linked skill training program exclusively rural girls
b. It is a generational poverty alleviation program
c. It aims to convert india’s demographic surplus into a demographic dividend
d. All are correct
27. India’s first healthcare and wellness centre under ayushman bharat yojana was inaugurated in
a. Bijapur (chattishgarh)
b. Udaipur (Rajasthan)
c. Vidisha (Madhya Pradesh)
d. Varanasi (Uttar Pradesh)
28. The ministry of communication has recently launched a pan india scholarship program for school children called ‘Deen Dayal Sparsh Yojana’. The objective of the scheme is to increase the reach of
a. Philately
b. Sports
c. Music
d. Fashion designing
29. Which one of the following statements about ‘Niryat Bandhu Scheme’ is correct?
a. It is the scheme for monitoring rural poor
b. It is a scheme for crop protection
c. It is a scheme for mentoring first generation entrepreneurs
d. It is a scheme for the vulnerable section of the society
30. Which state has been named first among states for its performance under the Pradhan mantri surakshit matritv abhiyan in india?
a. Madhya Pradesh
b. Himachal Pradesh
c. Tamil nadu
d. Uttar Pradesh
Chapter 5
1. Which of the following are causing agents of disease?
a. Physical agents
b. Biological agents
c. Chemical agents
d. All of the above
2. Sanitization broadly means
a. Supporting small scale entrepreneurs
b. Disposal of human excreta
c. To develop household water treatment and solid waste management system
d. Educate people and community
3. What is estimated death linked to poor sanitation and hygiene in rural india?
a. 1 in every 10 deaths
b. 10 in every 50 deaths
c. 1 in every 100 deaths
d. It can’t be estimated
4. The central rural sanitation program was launched in…
a. 1980
b. 1950
c. 1986
d. 2012
5. The central rural sanitation program was reconstructed in April and renamed as…
a. Nirmal bharat abhiyan
b. Nirmal gram abhiyan
c. Bhartiya nirmalta abhiyan
d. Total sanitation scheme
6. The first Nirmal Gram Puraskar was given in…
a. 2005
b. 2011
c. 2003
d. 2012
7. What do you mean by HWT?
a. Household waste treatment
b. Housing waste treatment
c. Housing water treatment
d. Household water treatment
8. The materials required for the construction of sanitary latrines and other sanitary facilities are
sold from…
a. Rural sanitization mart
b. Rural sanitary mall
c. Rural sanitary mart
9. The main objective of the program…. Is to eradicate 100% open defecation
a. Nirmal bharat abhiyan
b. Total sanitation campaign
c. Central rural sanitation program
d. Open defecation free india
10. Which of following is objective of community health?
a. Promotion and protection of health i.e. primary level prevention
b. Early diagnosis and treatment and control of further spread of disesse i.e. secondary level prevention
c. Control of disability and rehabilitation
d. All of the above
11. The concept of primary health care was introduced at international level jointly by WHO and UNICEF at the Alma Atta conference in …… year.
a. 1975
b. 1978
c. 1976
d. 1973
12. What was the goal to achieve Alma Atta conference
a. Basic facility for all
b. Sanitization for all
c. Health for all
d. None of the above
13. The full form of PHC..
a. Primary health center
b. Purposive health center
c. Primary health care
d. Pediatric health care
14. Required number of population to establish PHC in plain area
a. 20000
b. 25000
c. 15000
d. 30000
15. What are levels of care in PHC
a. First level of health care
b. Second level of health care
c. Tertiary level health care
d. All of the above
16. What are objectives of PHC
a. To provide comprehensive primary health care to the community at PHCs
b. To achieve and maintain an acceptable standard of quality of care
c. To make the services more responsive and sensitive to the need of the community
d. All of the above
17. The government of India has launched the national urban health mission as a submission under
the national health mission (NHM) in
a. 1st April 2005
b. 1st may 2007
c. 1st may 2013
d. 1st April 2015
18. Rajiv Rin Yojana addresses housing need of
a. Economically weak and lower income groups in urban areas
b. Urban BPL population
c. Urban slum dwellers and homeless
d. All of the above
19. Urban areas covered under N.U.H.M are
a. Town panchayats
b. Municipal corporations
c. Municipalities
d. All of the above
20. The major cause of death in urban areas
a. Cardiovascular diseases
b. Tuberculosis
c. Malignant and other neoplasms
d. Diarrheal diseases
21. The key public health challenges are
a. Weak and dysfunctional public system of outreach
b. Poor environmental health, poor housing
c. Many slums not having primary health care facility
d. All of these
22. NUHM will promote……….. convergence to avoid duplication of resources and efforts
a. Inter sectoral
b. Intra sectoral
c. Both
d. none
23. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Health promotion can refer to any event, process or activity that facilitates the protection or improvement of the health status of individuals, groups, communities or populations
b. The objective of health promotion is to prolong life and to improve quality life
c. Health promotion practice is often shaped by how health is conceptualized
d. All of the above
24. -------- refers to the application of consumer oriented marketing techniques in the design,
implementation and evaluation of programs aimed towards influencing behavior change
a. Health education
b. Social marketing
c. Consumer health
d. None of these
25. Which of the following are major components of coordinated school health?
a. Comprehensive school health education
b. Physical education
c. Nutrition services
d. All of the above