30.1 The ‘neuroleptic syndrome’ produced by chlorpromazine
like drugs is characterized by the following
except:
A. Emotional quietening
B. Paucity of movements
C. Ataxia
D. Indifference to external cues
30.2 The distinctive action of chlorpromazine like drugs
not possessed by any other class of drugs is:
A. Relief of anxiety without producing sedation
B. Suppression of agressive behaviour
C. Mood elevation in depressed patients
D. Correction of distortions of thought and perception
occurring in psychosis
30.3 Actions of chlorpromazine include the following except:
A. Indifference to external stimuli
B. Postural hypotension
C. Hypoprolactinemia
D. Hypothermia in cold surroundings
30.4 Fluphenazine differs from chlorpromazine in the following respects except:
A. It has higher antipsychotic efficacy
B. It is less sedative
C. It is less likely to precipitate seizures in epileptics
D. It causes more prominent extrapyramidal
side effects
30.5 Compared to other antipsychotic drugs, the distinctive feature of penfluridol is:
A. Very long duration of action
B. Weak dopamine D2 blocking activity
C. Lack of extrapyramidal side effects
D. Additional 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity
30.6 Which of the following adverse effects of neuroleptic
drugs is positively correlated to the antipsychotic
potency of the different compounds:
A. Sedation
B. Extrapyramidal motor disturbances
C. Postural hypotension
D. Lowering of seizure threshold
30.7 Selective inhibition of conditioned avoidance response
in animals by a drug indicates that the drug is likely
to be effective in:
A. Anxiety
B. Major depression
C. Schizophrenia
D. Manic-depressive illness
30.8 The following action of chlorpromazine is not based
on its antidopaminergic property:
A. Antipsychotic
B. Hyperprolactinemic
C. Antiemetic
D. Hypotensive
30.9 Chlorpromazine therapy increases the secretion of
the following hormone:
A. Prolactin
B. Gonadotropin
C. Corticotropin
D. Antidiuretic hormone
30.10 The following drug is not likely to produce dependence:
A. Diazepam
B. Chlorpromazine
C. Pethidine
D. Methadone
30.11 Which of the following is a long acting neuroleptic
having specific antidopaminergic action, but little
adrenergic or cholinergic blocking activity:
A. Triflupromazine
B. Thioridazine
C. Clozapine
D. Pimozide
30.12 The major limitation in the use of clozapine for
treatment of schizophrenia is:
A. Its potential to cause agranulocytosis
B. Its inability to benefit negative symptoms of schizophrenia
C. High incidence of extrapyramidal side effects
D. Production of hyperprolactinemia
30.13 What is true of risperidone:
A. It is an atypical neuroleptic which produces few extrapyramidal side effects
B. It has combined dopamine D2 and 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity
C. It does not cause hyperprolactinemia
D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
30.14 The following antipsychotic drug has weak dopamine
D2 but additional 5-HT2 blocking activity and benefits
both positive and negative symptoms of
schizophrenia:
A. Loxapine
B. Clozapine
C. Pimozide
D. Penfluridol
30.15 Which of the following is an atypical neuroleptic drug:
A. Loxapine
B. Olanzapine
C. Pimozide
D. Flupenthixol
30.16 Olanzapine has the following features except:
A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action
B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions
C. It lowers seizure threshold
D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects
30.17 Which of the following is a high potency antipsychotic
drug having minimal sedative and autonomic effects
and no propensity to cause weight gain:
A. Chlorpromazine
B. Triflupromazine
C. Haloperidol
D. Olanzapine
30.18 Clozapine is considered to be an atypical neuroleptic because:
A. It has weak antidopaminergic action but high antipsychotic efficacy
B. Its side effect profile is different from that of chlorpromazine
C. It is not a phenothiazine derivative
D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
30.19 The following side effect of typical neuroleptics may
respond to propranolol:
A. Parkinsonism
B. Acute muscle dystonia
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Akathisia
30.20 The following adverse effect can occur even long
after withdrawal of the offending drug:
A. Paradoxical tachycardia
B. Tardive dyskinesia
C. Malignant hyperthermia
D. Gynaecomastia
30.21 The extrapyramidal adverse effect of antipsychotic
drug therapy which does not respond to central
anticholinergics is:
A. Parkinsonism
B. Acute muscle dystonia
C. Rabbit syndrome
D. Tardive dyskinesia
30.22 The antipsychotic drug most likely to cause ocular
toxicity on long-term use is:
A. Thioridazine
B. Haloperidol
C. Flupenthixol
D. Pimozide
30.23 The psychotic symptoms most benefited by neuroleptic drugs are:
A. Judgement and memory impairment
B. Loss of insight and volition
C. Hallucinations, delusions and aggressive behaviour
D. Apathy and social withdrawal
30.24 A manic patient has been brought to the hospital with
nonstop talking, singing, uncontrolable behaviour and
apparent loss of contact with reality. Which of the
following is the most appropriate drug for rapid control
of his symptoms:
A. Lithium carbonate
B. Phenobarbitone
C. Haloperidol
D. Valproic acid
30.25 The following is correct about antipsychotic drugs except:
A. They only control symptoms of schizophrenia without affecting the basic disorder
B. Combination of two or more antipsychotic drugs is more efficacious than any single drug
C. In treating psychosis high potency drugs are preferred over low potency drugs
D. They donot produce dependence
30.26 Select the drug which should not be used to treat
neurotic anxiety and tension syndromes despite
having antianxiety action:
A. Buspirone
B. Chlorpromazine
C. Diazepam
D. Alprazolam
30.27 Chlorpromazine is ineffective in vomiting due to:
A. Motion sickness
B. Morning sickness
C. Digoxin therapy
D. Gastritis
30.28 The following statement(s) is/are correct in relation to
diazepam and chlorpromazine:
A. Both have anticonvulsant property
B. Both do not carry abuse liability
C. Both have antianxiety action
D. All of the above are correct
30.29 Select the anxiolytic benzodiazepine that has
additional mild antidepressant property:
A. Chlordiazepoxide
B. Oxazepam
C. Alprazolam
D. Lorazepam
30.30 Which of the following is a nonsedative anxiolytic:
A. Chlorpromazine
B. Buspirone
C. Hydroxyzine
D. Alprazolam
30.31 The following statement is correct about buspirone:
A. It interacts with benzodiazepine receptor as an inverse agonist
B. It is a rapidly acting anxiolytic, good for panic states
C. It produces physical dependence and suppresses barbiturate withdrawal syndrome
D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant property
30.32 Select the drug which relieves anxiety but neither
reacts with benzodiazepine receptor nor produces
any overt CNS effect:
A. Oxazepam
B. Thioproperazine
C. Buspirone
D. Chlordiazepoxide
30.33 The major constraint in the long term use of benzodiazepines
for treatment of generalized anxiety
disorder is:
A. Development of tolerance to antianxiety action of the benzodiazepines
B. Possibility of drug dependence
C. Cardiovascular depression
D. Likelyhood of overdose toxicity
30.34 The preferred class of drugs for long term treatment
of severe anxiety disorder with intermittent panic
attacks is:
A. Phenothiazine (chlorpromazine like)
B. Azapirone (buspirone like)
C. β-blocker (propranolol like)
D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
(sertraline like)
30.35 Choose the correct statement about the use of propranolol in anxiety:
A. Being nonsedative, it is the drug of choice in chronic anxiety states
B. It suppresses the psychological component of anxiety
C. It suppresses the autonomic manifestations of acutely stressful situations
D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
30.36 The following drug of abuse is a hallucinogen:
A. Cocaine
B. Cannabis
C. Heroin
D. Methaqualone
Ans:
30.1 C 30.2D 30.3 C 30.4 A 30.5 A 30.6 B 30.7 C 30.8D 30.9 A 30.10 B 30.11D 30.12 A 30.13D 30.14 B 30.15 B 30.16D 30.17 C 30.18D 30.19D 30.20 B 30.21D 30.22 A 30.23 C 30.24 C 30.25 B 30.26 B 30.27 A 30.28 C 30.29 C 30.30 B 30.31D 30.32 C 30.33 B 30.34D 30.35 C 30.36 B
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