31.1 Which of the following is a selective MAO-B inhibitor:
A. Selegiline
B. Clorgyline
C. Moclobemide
D. Tranylcypromine
31.2 The nonselective MAO inhibitors are not used clinically
as antidepressants because of their:
A. Low antidepressant efficacy
B. Higher toxicity
C. Potential to interact with many foods and drugs
D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct
31.3 Which of the following MAO inhibitors is most likely
to produce cheese reaction:
A. Tranylcypromine
B. Moclobemide
C. Selegiline
D. Clorgyline
31.4 The following is a reversible and selective MAO-A inhibitor:
A. Bupropion
B. Entacapone
C. Moclobemide
D. Selegiline
31.5 'Cheese reaction' in a MAO inhibited patient manifests as:
A. Precipitous fall in blood pressure and shock
B. Hypertensive crisis
C. Acute manic episode
D. Convulsions
31.6 Choose the correct statement about moclobemide:
A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action
B. Patients taking it need to be cautioned not to consume tyramine rich food
C. It is contraindicated in elderly patients
D. It produces anticholinergic side effects
31.7 Imipramine given to nondepressed individuals produces:
A. Euphoria
B. Insomnia
C. Lethargy and light headedness
D. Inappropriate behaviour
31.8 Of the following, choose the antidepressant having
both high sedative and high anticholinergic activity:
A. Imipramine
B. Amitriptyline
C. Fluoxetine
D. Trazodone
31.9 The antidepressant which selectively blocks
5-hydroxytryptamine uptake is:
A. Fluoxetine
B. Amoxapine
C. Desipramine
D. Dothiepin
31.10 Imipramine produces the following actions except:
A. Euphoria
B. Dryness of mouth
C. Tachycardia
D. Lowering of seizure threshold
31.11 Adaptive changes in brain monoamine turnover due
to blockade of noradrenaline/5-HT reuptake is credited
with the following effect:
A. Antipsychotic
B. Antianxiety
C. Antiparkinsonian
D. Antidepressant
31.12 The mechanisms involved in the causation of
dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to overdose of
tricyclic antidepressants include the following except:
A. Intraventricular conduction block
B. Potentiation of noradrenaline
C. Antagonism of acetylcholine
D. Increased vagal tone
31.13 A 65-year-old man was brought to the hospital with
complaints of pain in lower abdomen and not having
passed urine for 16 hours. The bladder was found to
be full. His son informed that he was depressed for
the last 2 years and only the day before a doctor had
given him some medicine. Which of the following
drugs is he most likely to have received:
A. Alprazolam
B. Sertraline
C. Amitryptyline
D. Trazodone
31.14 The following drug/drugs should not be used to treat
tricyclic antidepressant drug poisoning:
A. Quinidine
B. Digoxin
C. Atropine
D. All of the above
31.15 Limitations of typical tricyclic antidepressants
include the following except:
A. Narrow safety margin
B. Low oral bioavailability
C. Frequent side effects
D. Long latent period for response
31.16 Tricyclic antidepressants abolish the antihypertensive
action of the following drug:
A. Enalapril
B. Clonidine
C. Atenolol
D. Diltiazem
31.17 The following is a tetracyclic antidepressant that has
additional dopamine blocking and neuroleptic
properties, as well as greater propensity to cause
seizures in overdose:
A. Amoxapine
B. Doxepin
C. Dothiepin
D. Trazodone
31.18 The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have
overcome the following limitation(s) of typical tricyclic
antidepressants:
A. Frequent anticholinergic, sedative and hypotensive side effects
B. High risk of cardiac arrhythmias and seizures in overdose
C. Delayed response
D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
31.19 Advantages of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
(SSRIs) include the following except:
A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm
B. Minimal sedative action
C. Unlikely to cause fall in BP
D. Lack of seizure precipitating potential
31.20 Choose the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor that
is less likely to inhibit CYP2D6 and CYP3A4 resulting
in fewer drug interactions:
A. Sertraline
B. Paroxetine
C. Fluoxetine
D. Fluvoxamine
31.21 Currently, the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
are the preferred drugs for the following psychiatric
disorder/disorders:
A. Phobias
B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
C. Post-traumatic stress disorder
D. All of the above
31.22 The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the
typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following
except:
A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose
B. It infrequently produces sedative and anticholinergic side effects
C. It can elevate mood of apparently nondepressed
patients suffering from chronic somatic
illness
D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines
31.23 The following antidepressant increases rather than
inhibits 5-HT uptake into neurones:
A. Clomipramine
B. Fluoxetine
C. Tianeptine
D. Trazodone
31.24 Venlafaxine differs from standard tricyclic
antidepressants in that it:
A. Does not inhibit 5-HT reuptake
B. Does not inhibit noradrenaline reuptake
C. Does not have anticholinergic or antiadrenergic property
D. Has lower antidepressant efficacy
31.25 Which of the following is labelled as a 'serotonin and
noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor or SNRI':
A. Amineptine
B. Venlafaxine
C. Bupropion
D. Citalopram
31.26 Choose the drug that has been labelled as a
'noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressant'
or 'Na SSA':
A. Mirtazapine
B. Mianserin
C. Venlafaxine
D. Sertraline
31.27 The following is true of bupropion except:
A. It inhibits dopamine reuptake along with
inhibiting noradrenaline reuptake
B. It produces sedation as a side effect
C. It is being used as an aid for smoking cessation
D. It is likely to produce seizures in overdose
31.28 A patient of endogenous depression was put on
imipramine therapy. After what interval the therapeutic
effect is likely to manifest:
A. Three days
B. One week
C. Three weeks
D. Three months
31.29 Prolonged painful erection of penis has been noted
particularly as a side effect of:
A. Doxepin
B. Citalopram
C. Bupropion
D. Trazodone
31.30 The tricyclic antidepressants are also effective in the
following psychiatric disorders except:
A. Schizophrenia
B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
C. Bulimia
D. Phobic states
31.31 A 30-year-old woman suffering from endogenous
depression improved after one month of treatment with
amitriptyline. How long the drug should be continued:
A. 1-2 weeks
B. 6-12 months
C. 2-3 years
D. Life long
31.32 Diabetic and other types of neuropathic pain often responds to:
A. Chlorpromazine
B. Diazepam
C. Imipramine
D. Lithium
31.33 Indications of tricyclic antidepressants include the following except:
A. Attention deficit-hyperactive disorder in children
B. Mania
C. Prophylaxis of migraine
D. Panic disorder
31.34 The following statement about lithium is not correct:
A. It has a sedative action in normal individuals
B. It controls mania, but takes 1–2 weeks to produce the effect
C. It has prophylactic effect in recurrent unipolar depression
D. It can be combined with tricyclic antidepressants for refractory cases of major depression
31.35 For therapeutic effect in manic depressive illness,
steady-state serum lithium concentration should be
maintained between:
A. 0.2–0.4 mEq/L
B. 0.5–0.8 mEq/L
C. 1.0–1.3 mEq/L
D. 1.5–2.5 mEq/L
31.36 Select the psychotropic drug having a narrow safety margin:
A. Chlorpromazine
B. Buspirone
C. Lithium carbonate
D. Fluoxetine
31.37 Renal excretion of lithium is reduced by:
A. Furosemide
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Indomethacin
D. All of the above
31.38 The following drug can be used as an alternative to lithium in mania and bipolar illness:
A. Carbamazepine
B. Carisoprodol
C. Clomipramine
D. Diethyl carbamazine
31.39 The constellation of side effects consisting of thirst,
polyuria, looseness of stools and fine tremors is
characteristically associated with the following
psychotropic drug:
A. Amitriptyline
B. Lithium carbonate
C. Lorazepam
D. Buspirone
31.40 Prolonged lithium therapy can cause:
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Goiter
C. Parkinsonism
D. Gout
31.41 Drugs effective in bipolar illness include the following except:
A. Olanzapine
B. Diazepam
C. Sodium valproate
D. Lamotrigine
Ans:
31.1 A 31.2D 31.3 A 31.4 C 31.5 B 31.6 A 31.7 C 31.8 B 31.9 A 31.10 A 31.11D 31.12D 31.13 C 31.14D 31.15 B 31.16 B 31.17 A 31.18D 31.19 A 31.20 A 31.21D 31.22D 31.23 C 31.24 C 31.25 B 31.26 A 31.27 B 31.28 C 31.29D 31.30 A 31.31 B 31.32 C 31.33 B 31.34 A 31.35 B 31.36 C 31.37D 31.38 A 31.39 B 31.40 B 31.41 B
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