>>>Part 3
48.1 That sulfonamides act by inhibiting folate synthesis
in bacteria is supported by the following findings except:
A. Paraaminobenzoic acid antagonises the action of sulfonamides
B. Methionine antagonises the action of sulfonamides
C. Purines and thymidine present in pus antagonise the action of sulfonamides
D. Bacteria that utilise folic acid taken up from the medium are insensitive to sulfonamides
48.2 Indicate the sulfonamide whose sodium salt yields a
nearly neutral solution which is suitable for topical use in the eye:
A. Sulfadiazine
B. Sulfacetamide
C. Sulfadoxine
D. Sulfamoxole
48.3 A higher incidence of adverse effects to cotrimoxazole
occurs when this drug is used for:
A. Typhoid fever
B. Whooping cough
C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in AIDS patients
D. Chancroid
48.4 The following is true of sulfonamides except:
A. They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble
B. They are primarily metabolized by acetylation
C. They may exert bactericidal action in the urinary tract
D. Used alone, they have become therapeutically unreliable for serious infections
48.5 Select the sulfonamide drug which is active against
Pseudomonas and is used by topical application for
prophylaxis of infection in burn cases:
A. Sulfadiazine
B. Silver sulfadiazine
C. Sulfadoxine
D. Sulfamethoxazole
48.6 Trimethoprim inhibits bacteria without affecting mammalian cells because:
A. It does not penetrate mammalian cells
B. It has high affinity for bacterial but low affinity for mammalian dihydrofolate reductase enzyme
C. It inhibits bacterial folate synthetase as well as dihydrofolate reductase enzymes
D. All of the above
48.7 Trimethoprim is combined with sulfamethoxazole in a
ratio of 1:5 to yield a steady state plasma concentration ratio of:
A. Trimethoprim 1: Sulfamethoxazole 5
B. Trimethoprim 1: Sulfamethoxazole 10
C. Trimethoprim 1: Sulfamethoxazole 20
D. Trimethoprim 5: Sulfamethoxazole 1
48.8 Indicate the condition in which neither trimethoprim
nor sulfamethoxazole alone are effective, but their
combination cotrimoxazole is:
A. Prostatitis
B. Lymphogranuloma venereum
C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
D. Bacillary dysentery
48.9 The following quinolone antimicrobial agent is not
useful in systemic infections:
A. Lomefloxacin
B. Ofloxacin
C. Nalidixic acid
D. Pefloxacin
48.10 Indicate the enzyme(s) inhibited by fluoroquinolones:
A. Both 'A' and 'C'
B. Topoisomerase II
C. Topoisomerase IV
D. DNA gyrase
48.11 Select the antimicrobial drug which is used orally only
for urinary tract infection or for bacterial diarrhoeas:
A. Nalidixic acid
B. Azithromycin
C. Bacampicillin
D. Pefloxacin
48.12 Nalidixic acid is primarily active against:
A. Cocci
B. Bacilli
C. Gram positive bacteria
D. Gram negative bacteria
48.13 The fluoroquinolones have improved over nalidixic
acid in the following respect(s):
A. They have higher antimicrobial potency
B. They have extended antimicrobial spectrum
C. Development of bacterial resistance against
them is slow and infrequent
D. All of the above
48.14 Adverse effects of ciprofloxacin are referable
primarily to the following except:
A. Gastrointestinal tract
B. Kidney
C. Skin
D. Nervous system
48.15 Select the fluoroquinolone which has high oral bioavailability,
longer elimination half-life and which
does not inhibit metabolism of theophylline:
A. Norfloxacin
B. Pefloxacin
C. Lomefloxacin
D. Ciprofloxacin
48.16 A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most
cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea:
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Spectinomycin
D. Doxycycline
48.17 Which fluoroquinolone has enhanced activity against
gram positive bacteria and anaerobes:
A. Pefloxacin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Sparfloxacin
D. Norfloxacin
48.18 The most common mechanism of development of
resistance to fluoroquinolones is:
A. Chromosomal mutation altering affinity of target site
B. Plasmid transfer
C. Acquisition of drug destroying enzyme
D. Acquisition of alternative metabolic pathway
48.19 Ciprofloxacin is not active against:
A. H.influenzae
B. E.coli
C. Enterobacter spp.
D. Bacteroides fragilis
48.20 Important microbiological features of ciprofloxacin
include the following except:
A. Long postantibiotic effect
B. Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes
C. MBC values close to MIC values
D. Slow development of resistance
48.21 Currently the drug of choice for emperic treatment of
typhoid fever is:
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Ampicillin
48.22 The following drug may cure typhoid fever, but does not prevent development of carrier state:
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Ceftriaxone
48.23 The distinctive feature(s) of sparfloxacin compared to ciprofloxacin is/are:
A. Enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria
B. Lack of pharmacokinetic interaction with theophylline and warfarin
C. Higher incidence of phototoxic reaction
D. All of the above
48.24 In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has
the following advantage(s):
A. It is effective in nearly all cases
B. Early abetment of fever and other symptoms
C. Development of carrier state is unlikely
D. All of the above
48.25 Distinctive features of gatifloxacin include the following except:
A. Higher affinity for the enzyme topoisomerase IV
B. Activity restricted to gram negative bacteria
C. Potential to prolong QTc interval
D. Employed to treat community acquired pneumonia
48.26 The following fluoroquinolones have augmented
activity against gram positive bacteria except:
A. Lomefloxacin
B. Levofloxacin
C. Gatifloxacin
D. Moxifloxacin
Ans:
48.1 B 48.2 B 48.3 C 48.4 A 48.5 B 48.6 B 48.7 C 48.8 C 48.9 C 48.10D 48.11 A 48.12D 48.13D 48.14 B 48.15 C 48.16 A 48.17 C 48.18 A 48.19D 48.20 B 48.21 C 48.22 C 48.23D 48.24D 48.25 B 48.26 A
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