MCQs- Hormones and Related Drugs part 5 I Pharmacology KD Tripathi mcqs part 20



 20.1 Prolonged testosterone therapy can cause:

A. Hypertrophy of seminiferous tubules of testes

B. Hypertrophy of interstitial cells of testes

C. Atrophy of interstitial cells of testes

D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct


20.2 Conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone 

by the enzyme 5α-reductase is required for the

following actions except:

A. Formation of male external genitalia in the foetus

B. Prostatic hypertrophy in elderly males

C. Pubertal changes in the male adolescent

D. Spermatogenesis


20.3 Testosterone therapy started in a boy of 8 years and continued till puberty is likely to:

A. Increase adult stature

B. Reduce adult stature

C. Have no effect on adult stature

D. Cause hypertrophy of penis 


20.4 For the treatment of hypogonadism and impotence,

testosterone/dihydrotestosterone can be administered

by the following route/routes:

A. Oral

B. Intramuscular

C. Transdermal

D. Both 'B' and 'C' 


20.5 The following androgen does not produce

cholestatic jaundice as an adverse effect:

A. Testosterone propionate

B. Methyl testosterone

C. Fluoxymesterone

D. Stanozolol 


20.6 Select the disorder in which methyltestosterone is

beneficial but testosterone is ineffective:

A. Hereditary angioneurotic edema

B. Delayed puberty in a boy

C. Impotence due to testicular failure

D. AIDS related muscle wasting 


20.7 Parenteral testosterone therapy in a boy can cause

the following adverse effects except:

A. Gynaecomastia

B. Acne

C. Cholestatic jaundice

D. Precocious puberty 


20.8 Choose the correct statement about anabolic steroids:

A. They are testosterone congeners having anabolic but no androgenic activity

B. They are androgens with relatively selective anabolic activity

C. They are suitable for long-term therapy in children

D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct


20.9 The following is not a legitimate indication for the use of anabolic steroids:

A. To enhance the physical ability of sportsmen

B. Suboptimal growth in children

C. Senile osteoporosis

D. Hypoplastic anaemia 


20.10 Danazol is used for the following disorders except:

A. Amenorrhoea

B. Endometriosis

C. Fibrocystic breast disease

D. Precocious puberty in male children 


20.11 Danazol produces the following side effects in premenopausal women except:

A. Acne

B. Menorrhagia

C. Amenorrhoea

D. Hot flashes 


20.12 Select the drug that primarily reduces the static

component of urinary obstruction in benign hypertrophy

of prostate and takes more than 3 months to

exert its beneficial effect:

A. Tamsulosin

B. Terazosin

C. Finasteride

D. Amphetamine 


20.13 The following drug has potent antiandrogenic and

weak progestational activity:

A. Ethylestrenol

B. Clomiphene citrate

C. Cyproterone acetate

D. Magestrol acetate


20.14 Which of the following is a non-steroidal antiandrogen

that is palliative in advanced carcinoma prostate

when combined with a GnRH agonist:

A. Cyproterone acetate

B. Danazol

C. Finasteride

D. Flutamide 


20.15 Circulating testosterone levels in men are elevated

during treatment with:

A. Danazol

B. Finasteride

C. Flutamide

D. Ketoconazole


20.16 Which of the following is a steroid 5α-reductase

inhibitor that has been found useful in benign

prostatic hypertrophy and male pattern baldness:

A. Flutamide

B. Finasteride

C. Prazosin

D. Minoxidil 


20.17 Finasteride acts by:

A. Blocking testosterone receptors in the prostate gland

B. Reducing testosterone secretion from testes

C. Reducing LH secretion from pituitary

D. Lowering circulating as well as prostatic dihydrotestosterone concentration


20.18 In patients with benign prostatic hypertrophy, finasteride

exerts the following action/actions:

A. Reduces size of the prostate gland

B. Increases peak urinary flow rate

C. Relaxes vesical sphincter

D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct


20.19 Estrogens exert the following actions except:

A. Cornification of vaginal epithelium

B. Proliferation of endometrium

C. Maturation of graafian follicle

D. Anabolism 


20.20 Estrogen therapy in postmenopausal women has

been implicated in increasing the risk of the following

disorders except:

A. Gall stones

B. Osteoporosis

C. Endometrial carcinoma

D. Breast cancer


20.21 Metabolic actions of estrogens tend to cause the following except:

A. Anabolism

B. Impaired glucose tolerance

C. Rise in plasma LDL-cholesterol

D. Salt and water retention


20.22 Transdermal estradiol differs from oral estrogen therapy in that it:

A. Causes less induction of hepatic synthesis of clotting factors

B. Does not inhibit FSH secretion

C. Does not affect vaginal cytology

D. All of the above are correct 


20.23 In which of the following conditions estrogen is not

the primary drug but is added to progestin as

adjuvant:

A. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding

B. Menopausal syndrome

C. Osteoporosis

D. Atrophic vaginitis 


20.24 Which of the following statements most closely

reflects the current status of estrogens in postmenopausal

women:

A. Estrogens should be prescribed routinely to all menopausal women

B. Estrogens should be prescribed when menopausal symptoms are severe

C. Estrogens should be prescribed only when there is radiological evidence of osteoporosis

D. Estrogens should be prescribed along with a progestin after considering risk:benefit ratio

in individual patients 


20.25 Estrogen therapy can worsen the following associated conditions except:

A. Migraine

B. Cholelithiasis

C. Acne vulgaris

D. Endometriosis 


20.26 Addition of a progestin for 10-12 days each month to

estrogen replacement therapy in menopausal women

is recommended because the progestin:

A. Blocks the increased risk of myocardial infarction due to estrogen

B. Blocks the increased risk of endometrial carcinoma due to estrogen

C. Reverses vulval atrophy occurring in postmenopausal women

D. Enhances the metabolic benefits of estrogen treatment


20.27 The estrogen commonly used for hormone replacement therapy in menopausal women is:

A. Ethinylestradiol

B. Estradiol benzoate

C. Diethylstilbestrol

D. Conjugated estrogens 


20.28 The daily dose of estrogen for hormone replacement

therapy in postmenopausal women is:

A. Same as for contraception

B. Higher than that for contraception

C. Lower than that for contraception

D. Variable depending on the age of the woman


20.29 Select the compound which used for hormone replacement

therapy in postmenopausal women serves

the purpose of both estrogen and progestin with

weak androgenic activity:

A. Tibolone

B. Mestranol

C. Desogestrel

D. Gestodene


20.30 Select the correct statement about tibolone:

A. It is an antiestrogen used for palliative treatment of carcinoma breast

B. It is an estrogenic + progestational steroid used for hormone replacement therapy in

postmenopausal women

C. It is an antiandrogen used for male pattern baldness

D. It is a nonsteroidal estrogen used topically for senile vaginitis 


20.31 Estrogens are palliative in the following malignancy:

A. Carcinoma breast

B. Carcinoma cervix

C. Endometrial carcinoma

D. Carcinoma prostate 


20.32 Estrogen replacement therapy for postmenopausal women is contraindicated in subjects with:

A. Leg vein thrombosis

B. Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding

C. Migraine

D. All of the above 


20.33 In women of child bearing age, clomiphene citrate produces the following actions except:

A. Hot flushes

B. Ovulation

C. Decreased FSH and LH secretion

D. Polycystic ovaries


20.34 Clomiphene citrate is indicated for the following condition/conditions:

A. Female infertility due to anovular cycles

B. Male infertility due to oligozoospermia

C. Endometriosis

D. Both 'A' and 'B' 


20.35 For the treatment of female infertility, clomiphene citrate is used in the following manner:

A. Daily from 5th to 10th day of menstrual cycle

B. On alternate days over the last two weeks of menstrual cycle

C. Cyclically for 3 weeks with one week gap

D. Continuously till conception occurs


20.36 The following is an orally active ovulation inducing agent:

A. Menotropin

B. Mifepristone

C. Danazol

D. Clomiphene citrate 


20.37 Which of the following is a selective estrogen

receptor modulator that improves bone mineral

density in postmenopausal women:

A. Clomiphene citrate

B. Raloxifene

C. Ormeloxifene

D. Alendronate 


20.38 What is true of tamoxifen:

A. It can induce endometrial proliferation in postmenopausal women

B. It exerts antiestrogenic activity in bone

C. It raises LDL-cholesterol levels

D. It is ineffective in estrogen receptor-negative breast cancer


20.39 Benefits of tamoxifen citrate therapy include the following except:

A. Reduction in recurrence rate of breast cancer

B. Improved bone mass

C. Suppression of menopausal hot flushes

D. Improved lipid profile


20.40 The primary indication of tamoxiphen citrate is:

A. Female infertility

B. Endometrial carcinoma

C. Carcinoma breast

D. Endometriosis 


20.41 Tamoxifen citrate is used for palliative treatment of carcinoma breast in:

A. Premenopausal women

B. Postmenopausal women

C. Mastectomized patients

D. All of the above 


20.42 The following effect(s) of tamoxifen citrate indicate(

s) that it possesses tissue specific estrogenic

action as well:

A. Inhibition of breast cancer cells

B. Endometrial proliferation

C. Hot flushes in premenopausal women

D. All of the above 


20.43 The following is true of raloxifene except:

A. It acts as an estrogen agonist in bone

B. It exerts estrogen antagonistic action on endometrium

C. It increases risk of developing breast cancer

D. It can induce/aggravate menopausal hot flushes


20.44 Choose the selective estrogen receptor modulator

that is useful in dysfunctional uterine bleeding by

acting as estrogen antagonist in endometrium, but

does not alter vaginal epithelium or cervical mucus:

A. Ormeloxifene

B. Tamoxifen

C. Centchroman

D. Danazol 


20.45 Progesterone administration:

A. Suppresses onset of menstruation

B. Induces watery cervical secretion

C. Sensitizes the uterus to oxytocin

D. Cornifies vaginal epithelium 


20.46 The 19-Norprogestins differ from progesterone derivatives in that they:

A. Have potent antiovulatory activity

B. Have no additional androgenic activity

C. Have no additional estrogenic activity

D. Are preferred for use in endometriosis


20.47 The distinctive features of desogestrel include the following except:

A. It is a prodrug

B. It has both strong progestational and strong antiovulatory activities

C. It has additional androgenic acitivity

D. It does not counteract the beneficial effect of estrogen on lipid profile


20.48 Actions of progesterone include the following except:

A. Rise in body temperature

B. Endometrial proliferation

C. Proliferation of acini in mammary gland

D. Suppression of cell mediated immunity


20.49 Select the progestin preparation for coadministration

with estrogen for hormone replacement therapy that

does not counteract the beneficial effect of the latter

on lipid profile due to lack of androgenic activity:

A. Micronized oral progesterone

B. Norethindrone

C. Lynestrenol

D. Medroxyprogesterone acetate 


20.50 Select the indication for which a progestin is used

alone without combining with an estrogen:

A. Threatened abortion

B. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding

C. Hormone replacement therapy

D. Premenstrual tension


20.51 Side effects of cyclic progestin therapy include the following except:

A. Headache

B. Gastroesophageal reflux

C. Breast dyscomfort

D. Irregular bleeding 


20.52 Addition of a progestin for 10-12 days every month to

cyclic estrogen replacement therapy during menopause

is recommended because the progestin:

A. Prevents osteoporosis

B. Prevents irregular bleeding

C. Blocks increased risk of endometrial carcinoma

D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct 


20.53 The following is/are beneficial in endometriosis:

A. Norethindrone

B. Nafarelin

C. Danazol

D. All of the above 


20.54 Select the drug which administered orally causes

cervical ripening in pregnant women to facilitate

surgical abortion or induction of labour:

A. Mifepristone

B. Raloxifene

C. Natural progesterone

D. Levonorgestrel 


20.55 Mifepristone possesses the following activities:

A. Potent antiprogestin + weak androgenic

B. Potent antiprogestin + weak antiglucocorticoid

C. Potent antiestrogenic + weak antiprogestin

D. Potent antiestrogenic + weak glucocorticoid


20.56 Which of the following drugs is an antiprogestin:

A. Gemeprost

B. Megestrol

C. Mifepristone

D. Tamoxifen


20.57 The most important indication of mifepristone is:

A. Endometriosis

B. Cushing's syndrome

C. First term abortion

D. Second term abortion


20.58 Administration of mifepristone in the late luteal phase:

A. Induces menstruation

B. Postpones menstruation

C. Prevents luteolysis

D. Causes decidualization of endometrium


20.59 Which of the following can act as a single dose postcoital contraceptive:

A. Clomiphene citrate

B. Mifepristone

C. Danazol

D. Medroxyprogesterone acetate 


20.60 The following regimen is preferred for nonsurgical

termination of pregnancy in the first 7 weeks:

A. Intravenous oxytocin infusion

B. Intramuscular carboprost

C. Intravaginal mifepristone followed by intraamniotic dinoprost

D. Oral mifepristone followed by oral misoprostol


20.61 The most popular form of hormonal contraception is:

A. Combined estrogen + progestin oral pill

B. Phased estrogen + progestin oral pill

C. Postcoital estrogen + progestin pill

D. Depot progestin injection 


20.62 The purpose/purposes served by the progestin component

of the combined estrogen + progestin contraceptive pill is/are:

A. Suppression of ovulation

B. Prompt bleeding at the end of the course

C. Blockade of increased risk of endometrial carcinoma

D. All of the above


20.63 The progestin used in combined oral contraceptive

pill is a 19-nortestosterone derivative because:

A. They have potent antiovulatory action of their own

B. They do not produce any metabolic effects

C. They produce fewer side effects

D. They are longer acting 


20.64 In which of the following forms of oral contraception,

pills are taken continuously without interruption:

A. Combined pill

B. Phased pill

C. Minipill

D. Both 'B' and 'C'


20.65 A progestin and an estrogen are combined in oral contraceptive pill because:

A. The estrogen blocks the side effects of the progestin

B. The progestin blocks the side effects of the estrogen

C. Both synergise to suppress ovulation

D. Both synergise to produce hostile cervical mucus


20.66 The regimen(s) used for postcoital emergency contraception is/are:

A. Levonorgestrel 0.5 mg + ethinylestradiol 0.1 mg taken twice 12 hour apart

B. Levonorgestrel 0.75 mg taken twice 12 hour apart

C. Mifepristone 600 mg single dose

D. All of the above 


20.67 The most common and important undesirable effect

of injectable contraceptive depot medroxyprogesterone

acetate is:

A. Nausea and vomiting

B. Disruption of cyclic menstrual bleeding

C. Venous thrombosis

D. Hypertension 


20.68 The primary mechanism of action of the combined

estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive pill is:

A. Production of cervical mucus hostile to sperm penetration

B. Suppression of FSH and LH release

C. Making endometrium unsuitable for implantation

D. Enhancing uterine contractions to dislodge the fertilized ovum 


20.69 Which of the following is advised when a woman on

combined oral contraceptive pill misses a dose:

A. Continue with the course without regard to the missed dose

B. Take 2 pills the next day and continue with the course

C. Take 2 pills everyday for the remaining part of the course

D. Discontinue the course and use alternative method of contraception 


20.70 The currently used injectable hormonal contraceptive contains:

A. Long acting progestin

B. Long acting estrogen

C. Both long acting estrogen and progestin

D. Chorionic gonadotropin 


20.71 Which side effect of the oral contraceptive subsides after 3–4 cycles of continued use:

A. Glucose intolerance

B. Rise in blood pressure

C. Headache

D. Fluid retention 


20.72 Oral contraceptive use increases the risk of occurrence of the following diseases except:

A. Hypertension

B. Leg vein thrombosis

C. Endometrial carcinoma

D. Gall stones


20.73 Concurrent use of the following drug is likely to cause failure of oral contraception:

A. Isoniazid

B. Rifampicin

C. Cimetidine

D. Propranolol


20.74 Health benefits afforded by the combined estrogenprogestin oral contraceptive pill include the following except:

A. Reduced menstrual blood loss

B. Lower risk of fibrocystic breast disease

C. Lower risk of myocardial infarction

D. Lower risk of endometrial carcinoma


20.75 On stoppage of the combined estrogen-progestin contraceptive pill, fertility returns after:

A. 1–2 months

B. 4–6 months

C. 6–12 months

D. Uncertain period 


20.76 Centchroman is:

A. An oral contraceptive for women

B. An oral contraceptive for men

C. A mast cell stabilizer

D. A centrally acting muscle relaxant 


20.77 The following has been found to act as a male contraceptive without affecting libido or potency:

A. Cyproterone acetate

B. Goserelin

C. Centchroman

D. Gossypol 


20.78 The following contraceptive acts primarily by interfering with implantation of blastocyst:

A. Gossypol

B. Centchroman

C. Combined estrogen-progestin pill

D. Phased pill


Ans:


20.1 C 20.2 D 20.3 B 20.4 D 20.5 A 20.6 A 20.7 C 20.8 B 20.9 A 20.10 A 20.11 B 20.12 C 20.13 C 20.14 D 20.15 C 20.16 B 20.17 D 20.18 D 20.19 C 20.20 B 20.21 C 20.22 A 20.23 A 20.24 D 20.25 C 20.26 B 20.27 D 20.28 C 20.29 A 20.30 B 20.31 D 20.32 D 20.33 C 20.34 D 20.35 A 20.36 D 20.37 B 20.38 A 20.39 C 20.40 C 20.41 D 20.42 B 20.43 C 20.44 A 20.45 A 20.46 A 20.47 C 20.48 B 20.49 A 20.50 A 20.51 D 20.52 D 20.53 D 20.54 A 20.55 B 20.56 C 20.57 C 20.58 A 20.59 B 20.60 D 20.61 A 20.62 D 20.63 A 20.64 C 20.65 C 20.66 D 20.67 B 20.68 B 20.69 B 20.70 A 20.71 C 20.72 C 20.73 B 20.74 C 20.75 A 20.76 A 20.77 D 20.78 B 

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