MCQs-Antimicrobial Drugst Part 6 I Pharmacology KD Tripathi mcqs part 52

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52.1 Hepatitis with cholestatic jaundice occurs most

frequently as an adverse reaction to the following

preparation of erythromycin:

A. Erythromycin base

B. Erythromycin stearate

C. Erythromycin estolate

D. Erythromycin ethylsuccinate

52.2 Select the antibiotic which inhibits bacterial protein

synthesis by interfering with translocation of

elongating peptide chain from acceptor site back to

the peptidyl site of the ribosome so that ribosome

does not move along the mRNA and the peptide chain

is prematurely terminated:

A. Chloramphenicol

B. Erythromycin

C. Tetracycline

D. Streptomycin

52.3 Bacteria become erythromycin resistant by the following mechanisms except:

A. Becoming less permeable to erythromycin

B. Elaborating an erythromycin esterase enzyme

C. Elaborating a ‘protection protein’ which blocks the erythromycin binding site

D. Altering the ribosomal binding site through a methylase enzyme

52.4 A patient of bronchial asthma maintained on theophylline

developed upper respiratory tract infection.

Which antimicrobial if used can increase the risk of

developing theophylline toxicity:

A. Ampicillin

B. Cephalexin

C. Cotrimoxazole

D. Erythromycin

52.5 Select the antibiotic which inhibits drug metabolizing

isoenzyme CYP3A4 resulting in potentially fatal drug

interaction with terfenadine:

A. Erythromycin

B. Clindamycin

C. Gentamicin

D. Vancomycin

52.6 The following antibiotic is a first line drug for treatment

of Mycobacterium avium complex infection in AIDS patients:

A. Clindamycin

B. Clarithromycin

C. Roxithromycin

D. Erythromycin 

52.7 Compared to erythromycin, azithromycin has:

A. Extended antimicrobial spectrum

B. Better gastric tolerance

C. Longer duration of action

D. All of the above

52.8 A single oral dose of the following antibiotic is

curative in most patients of nonspecific urethritis due

to Chlamydia trachomatis:

A. Doxycycline

B. Azithromycin

C. Erythromycin

D. Cotrimoxazole

52.9 The following is true of clarithromycin except:

A. It produces less gastric irritation and pain than erythromycin

B. It is the most active macrolide antibiotic against Helicobacter pylori

C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias

D. It exhibits dose dependent elimination kinetics

52.10 The distinctive features of azithromycin include the

following except:

A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin

B. Marked tissue distribution and intracellular penetration

C. Long terminal elimination half-life

D. Low propensity to drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes

52.11 Select the macrolide antibiotic that can be given once

daily for 3 days for empirical treatment of ear-nosethroat,

respiratory and genital infections:

A. Erythromycin

B. Azithromycin

C. Roxithromycin

D. Clarithromycin

52.12 Roxithromycin has the following advantage(s) over

erythromycin:

A. It is more effective in whooping cough

B. It causes less gastric irritation

C. It has longer plasma half-life

D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

52.13 Highest incidence of antibiotic associated pseudomembranous

enterocolitis has been noted with the use of:

A. Ampicillin

B. Chloramphenicol

C. Vancomycin

D. Clindamycin

52.14 Features of clindamycin include the following:

A. It is primarily active against aerobic gram negative bacilli

B. It can be used topically to treat infected acne vulgaris

C. It is not absorbed orally

D. It is used to treat pseudomembranous enterocolitis

52.15 The following antibiotic is highly active against anaerobic

bacteria including Bacteroides fragilis:

A. Ciprofloxacin

B. Clarithromycin

C. Clindamycin

D. Tobramycin

52.16 Antimicrobials effective against anaerobic bacteria

include the following except:

A. Tobramycin

B. Clindamicin

C. Chloramphenicol

D. Metronidazole

52.17 The drug of choice for treatment of methicillin resistant

Staphylococcus aureus infection is:

A. Cloxacillin

B. Vancomycin

C. Erythromycin

D. Amikacin

52.18 The following is true of vancomycin except:

A. It is a bactericidal antibiotic active primarily against gram positive bacteria

B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis

C. It is an alternative to penicillin for enterococcal endocarditis

D. It can cause deafness as a dose related toxicity

52.19 Oral vancomycin is indicated in the following condition:

A. Appendicitis

B. Campylobacter diarrhoea

C. Bacillary dysentery

D. Antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis

52.20 ‘Red man syndrome’ has been associated with rapid

intravenous injection of the following antibiotic:

A. Vancomycin

B. Clindamycin

C. Cefoperazone

D. Piperacillin

52.21 Teicoplanin has the following feature(s):

A. Antimicrobial activity and indications similar to vancomycin

B. Long elimination half-life

C. Efficacy in systemic infections by oral route

D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

52.22 Select the antimicrobial agent that can be used to

treat with both methicillin resistant and vancomycin

resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection:

A. Clarithromycin

B. Clindamycin

C. Linezolid

D. Lincomycin

52.23 The following is true of linezolid except:

A. It inhibits bacterial protein synthesis at an early step

B. It is active against vancomycin resistant enterococci

C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis

D. It can be administered orally as well as by i.v. infusion

52.24 What is true of Quinupristin-Dalfopristin:

A. It is a synergistic combination of two similar antibiotics

B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis

C. It is active against most resistant coccal infections

D. All of the above are correct

52.25 Indicate the attribute that is common to both polymyxin B and bacitracin:

A. Both are active against gram negative bacteria

B. Both are too toxic for systemic use

C. Both act by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis

D. Both are used orally for superinfection diarrhoeas

52.26 Indicate the drug which attains therapeutic antibacterial

concentration in the urinary tract but not in

other tissues:

A. Pefloxacin

B. Amikacin

C. Nitrofurantoin

D. Cephalexin 

52.27 Choose the correct statement about methenamine (hexamine):

A. It acts by getting converted to mandelic acid in the urinary tract

B. It releases formaldehyde in acidic urine which inturn kills bacteria

C. It is highly effective in acute urinary tract infections

D. It is the preferred urinary antiseptic in patients with liver disease

52.28 Acidic urine augments the antibacterial action of the following drug:

A. Ciprofloxacin

B. Cotrimoxazole

C. Gentamicin

D. Nitrofurantoin

52.29 Choose the correct statement in relation to treatment

of urinary tract infection (UTI):

A. Majority of UTIs are caused by gram positive bacteria

B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent suffice for lower UTI

C. Fluid restriction is recommended so that the antimicrobial drug gets concentrated in urine

D. Most acute UTIs are treated with a combination antimicrobial regimen

52.30 The drug of choice for penicillinase producing

Neisseria gonorrhoeae urethritis is:

A. Amoxicillin

B. Erythromycin

C. Ceftriaxone

D. Doxycycline

52.31 The preparation of penicillin preferred for treatment of syphilis is:

A. Sodium penicillin G

B. Benzathine penicillin G

C. Penicillin V

D. Ampicillin

Ans:

52.1 C 52.2 B 52.3 C 52.4D 52.5 A 52.6 B 52.7D 52.8 B 52.9 C 52.10 A 52.11 B 52.12D 52.13D 52.14 B 52.15 C 52.16 A 52.17 B 52.18 B  52.19D 52.20 A 52.21D 52.22 C 52.23 C 52.24D 52.25 B 52.26 C 52.27 B 52.28D 52.29 B 52.30 C 52.31 B